[100% Pass Exam Dumps] 100% Pass Rate Cisco 210-065 Dump CIVND Exam Test CCNA Collaboration Latest Video Study Free Download (Question 1 – Question 25)

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210-065 dumps

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 210-065 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco IP Video Phone E20
C. Cisco TelePresence EX Series
D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500
210-065 exam Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is manually configuring a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which two pieces of information must the administrator introduce, in order for the system to properly register to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager or to a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server? (Choose two.)
A. the MAC address of the Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint
B. a SIP URI
C. the name of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server or Cisco VCS server
D. an IP address for the endpoint
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
In this item, you will need to use all information presented to you to successfully answer the question.
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 andgt; CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
A network engineer wants to check the local system call ID on a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System. Which CLI command should the engineer use?
A. show call statistics addin
B. show call statistics all

C. show call statistics audio
D. show call status
E. show call statistics video
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)
A. auto-attendant
B. ClearPath
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D. Cascading
E. Active presence for all devices
F. Support for Conductor
G. Native scheduling capabilities
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 7
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Content Server. Which two services are provided by this product? (Choose two.)
A. video storage
B. multiconferencing C. scheduler
D. video conferencing

E. video recording
F. video overlay
210-065 vce Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
A desktop video endpoint is needed that can support a PrecisionHD camera design and a built-in display, and is Bluetooth-ready and multisite-capable. Which desktop endpoint supports all of these requirements?
A. SX20
B. EX60
C. SX80
D. EX90
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which Cisco Prime Collaboration capabilities are shown?
A. Endpoint and system inventory reporting
B. Proactive monitoring and alerts for video endpoint faults
C. End-to-end network path troubleshooting
D. Real-time monitoring and alerts for video endpoint faults
E. Dashboard view of overall voice and video network health
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two codecs are supported on the Cisco Video Surveillance 6400E IP Camera? (Choose two.)
A. H.263
B. H.264
C. H.265
D. VP8
E. G.711
F. MP3

G. G.729
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
A video engineer has opened a ticket with Cisco TAC for support and the TAC engineer has requested system information such as software version of Cisco VCS. Where does the video engineer find this information?
A. System
B. Maintenance
C. Configuration
D. Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; Template
C. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; H.323 andgt; Template
D. Recording Alias andgt; Workflow andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which configuration element can be used to specify the Multiway address that can be used by the endpoint to initiate Multiway calls?
A. Conference 1
B. NetworkServices
C. Provisioning
D. SIP Profile 1
E. Video
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which statement is correct regarding the difference between Multisite and Multiway conferencing?
A. Multisite requires configuration on the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires the Multiway options key to be installed.
B. Multisite requires the presence of a multipoint control unit, whereas Multiway relies on the endpoint conferencing capability.
C. Multisite is used to conference in multiple sites, whereas Multiway is intrasite multipoint conferencing.
D. Multisite requires the Multisite options key to be installed and configured at the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server and a centralized multipoint control unit.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is the correct order of steps to schedule a One Button to Push conference call between a Cisco TelePresence System 500 and a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40?
A. Configure the One Button to Push field under device configuration for the Cisco TelePresence System 500 and Codec C40.
B. Configure One Button to Push under Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server andgt; Applications andgt; OBTP Configuration.
C. Configure a new conference under Cisco TelePresence Management Suite andgt; Booking New Conference andgt; Type.
D. The One Button to Push feature cannot be configured without a scheduling plug-in application such as Microsoft Outlook.
E. Configure the Scheduler tool in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your customer has an EX60 at a home-office that is doing direct H.323 dialing. When they place calls to remote sites, they report that they cannot see video or hear audio from the remote sites. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. NAT mode is not configured on the EX60.
B. The HDMI cable that connects the EX60 to the monitor is not plugged in.
C. A username and password must be configured on the EX60.
D. QoS is not properly configured on the EX60.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which video-room solution supports internal and external microphones for audio transmission at the same time?
A. MX300G2
B. SX80
C. SpeakerTrack60
D. C90
E. Jabber for Windows
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265

B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 23
A customer wants to purchase a video endpoint that supports a touchscreen control. The engineer recommends a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which information about this endpoint should the engineer tell the customer?
A. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You can purchase the 10- inch touchscreen with an additional cost.
B. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the 10-inch touchscreen.
C. You can purchase the endpoint with either the 8-inch touchscreen or the 10-inch touchscreen. You need an additional option key for the 10-inch touchscreen.
D. The endpoint comes with the 10-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the endpoint with the 8-inch touchscreen.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A user is unable to make a video call from an endpoint that is registered to the Cisco VCS. To isolate the cause, which two menu choices should the user check first? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration andgt; Call Policy
B. Status andgt; Registrations
C. Status andgt; Search History
D. Status andgt; System Information
E. Configuration andgt; Dial Plan andgt; Search Rules
F. Status andgt; Event Log
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 25
Which of these involves combining visual elements from separate sources into a single image?
A. interlacing
B. compositing

C. video conferencing
D. interleaving
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 210-060 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password
B. IM andamp; Presence server is down
C. User is not associated with the device
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue
E. CSF Device is not registered
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user
210-060 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which component is needed for a voice call to be processed between the enterprise Cisco Unified Communications system and a cell phone via the PSTN?
A. Cisco Analog Voice Gateway VG224
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing node
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Music On Hold node
D. Cisco Integrated Service Router with digital signal processor resources
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
A. auto-reg-ephone
B. auto-reg-dn
C. max-ephones
D. max-dn
E. dn-webedit
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which four devices can be used to provide analog ports, traditional phones, and fax machines? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Foreign Exchange Station Voice Interface Card
C. Cisco High Density VoiceFax Network Module
D. Cisco ATA190 Analog Telephone Adapter
E. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Border Element
G. Foreign Exchange Office Voice Interface
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 7
Customer requirements dictate that local calls from area code 408 display the ANI as a 7-digit number. Which procedure allows the leading digits to be stripped as soon as they arrive at the H.323 voice gateway?
A. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
B. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the
dial peer in the outbound direction.
C. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the
dial peer in the outbound direction.
D. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the
dial peer in the inbound direction.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An administrator has determined that an end user is experiencing jitter. Which symptom is the end user experiencing?
A. choppy
B. crosstalk
C. static
D. screeching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway

B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which menu should be used to create a username and password in the Cisco Unified CME GUI?
A. configure andgt; pilot number
B. configure andgt; extension
C. configure andgt; phones
D. configure andgt; system parameters
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The receptionist has a Cisco 7965 phone with 24-button side-car configuration. The side-car button of the phone does not light up when the line is in use. Which phone configuration is missing?
A. Subscriber calling search space
B. Location
C. BLF audible alert setting
D. Phone button template
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers?
A. Alternate Extension

B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which configuration causes PSTN users to experience a fail tone for every other call when trying to reach a particular number on Cisco Unified CME?
A. ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
B. Duplicate ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
C. ephone is not registered.
D. ephone does not exist for the ephone-dn.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration andgt; Update System Info
B. Configure andgt; System Parameters
C. Configure andgt; Phones
D. Configure andgt; Extensions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
210-060 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Where can an engineer find how many unused Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Standard licenses remain?
A. CAR
B. Cisco Unified Reporting
C. Cisco Unified Communications Enterprise License Manager
D. RTMT
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which two profile types are needed to enable a user for IM and Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. voicemail profile
C. Jabber profile

D. device profile
E. network access profile
F. service profile
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
210-060 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile

E. device profile
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify

C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
210-060 vce Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-355 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants to analyze the data rates that are available to a corporate laptop in its wireless deployment. The customer wants a heat map that displays actual data and shows the data rates that are available to the client in different areas of its facility. When using AirMagnet Survey PRO, which type of survey provides the actual data rates?
A. virtual
B. predictive
C. passive
D. active
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. A customer is using central web authentication with a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller and Cisco Identity Services Engine. An error occurs when wireless clients are redirected to the hosted splash page. What is causing the client error?
A. Secure Web Mode is disabled on the WLC.
B. OCSP is disabled on the WLC.
C. Management Via Dynamic Interface is disabled on the WLC.
D. Ethernet Multicast Forwarding is enabled on the WLC.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to manage the results of a report that had been run on network utilization?
A. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Device andgt; Utilization
B. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Scheduled Run Results
C. Reports andgt; Saved Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
D. Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
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200-355 pdf Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
200-355 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm

C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this: interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12

G. 18
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor

200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
200-355 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
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200-355 dumps

 

QUESTION 20
Which two formats are available for Cisco WCS reports? (Choose two.)
A. PDF
B. CSV
C. HTML
D. TXT
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application

E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which option describes computer-to-computer wireless communication?
A. BSS and BSA
B. IBSS and ad hoc network
C. ad hoc network and BSA
D. IBSS and ESS
E. ESS and BSA
F. BSS and ad hoc network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A wireless engineer is designing the wireless networking for a company with offices in two different locations. Which two regulatory bodies should they check to find the maximum EIRP allowed? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ITU-R
D. ETSI
E. Wi-Fi Alliance
200-355 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
B. HTTPS
C. SNMPv3
D. Telnet
E. SNMPv2c
F. HTTP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are unable to connect to the network with their pre shared key. Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs andgt; WLAN_ID andgt; Advanced
B. Security andgt; Clients
C. Security andgt; Advanced andgt; Clients
D. Monitor andgt; Clients
E. Wireless andgt; 802.11b/g/n andgt; clients
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What authentication method requires a certificate on both the client and authentication server?
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-FAST
D. WPA-PSK
E. WEP
F. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is the function of the Cisco AnyConnect DART tool?
A. creates a compressed bundle of client logs and information
B. visualizes a WLAN environment, showing the possible locations of problems
C. gathers statistics from neighboring clients for comparison to the baseline
D. helps to troubleshoot a WLAN connection by using easy-to-use wizards and statistic viewers
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which protocol helps the administrator to determine whether a detected rogue AP is in the network of the organization?
A. RLDP

B. RCP
C. RDP
D. RAPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What three configuration options can be executed by navigating to the WCS Administration andgt; AAA menu? (Choose three.)
A. Add a Lobby Ambassador guest
B. Add a LDAP server
C. Add an administrative user
D. Add a MAC address list filter
E. Add a RADIUS server
F. Add a TACAS+ server
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 30
An engineer is seeing a pattern closest to that of an Isotropic Radiator. What other antenna will produce a similar pattern?
A. 5 dBi patch
B. 13.5 dBi Yagi
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 21 dBi parabolic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which device divides a signal between two antennas?
A. splitter
B. lightening arrestor
C. attenuator
D. amplifier
200-355 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
200-355 dumps

What is the meaning of the inverted orange triangle (marked andquot;0andquot;) in the Alarm Summary tab of Cisco WCS?
A. number of major alarms
B. number of minor alarms
C. number of critical alarms
D. number of system alarms
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
How many RADIUS servers can be configured globally and per WLAN on a Cisco WLC version 7.0?
A. 7 global; additional 1 per WLAN
B. 7 global; additional 3 per WLAN
C. 17 global; additional 1 per WLAN
D. 17 global; additional 3 per WLAN
E. 7 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN
F. 17 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN

G. 17 global; reuse of up to 3 maximum per WLAN
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 35
Which key combination provides a detailed wireless connection status for an Apple MacBook running 10.6?
A. Command + Click the SSID of the network
B. Alt + Click the SSID of the network
C. Command + the Airport icon
D. Option + the Airport icon
E. Ctrl + the Airport Icon
F. Option + Click the SSID of the network
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-360 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 34
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 35
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF
QUESTION 36
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Before upgrading Secure Platform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration. An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problems after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?
A. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).
B. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the Secure Platform boot menu.
C. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file.

D. A back up cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R76. To avoid problems, you decide to back up the Gateway. Which approach allows the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. snapshot
B. database revision
C. backup
D. upgrade export
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Your R76 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2008 Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A. 1. Create a database revision control backup using the Smart Dashboard
2. Create a compressed archive of the *FWDlR*\ conf and »FWDiR8\lib directories and copy them to another networked machine.
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot.
4. Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R70 CD.
5. Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to overwrite existing files.
B. 1. Download the latest upgrade export utility and run it from a c; \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Skip any upgarde__verification warnings since you are not upgrading
3. Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine
4. Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot
5. Use the R70 CD-ROM to select the uuarade import ootion to import the configuration
C. 1. Download the latest upqrade_expoct utility and run it from a \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Perform any requested upgcade_veriЈic«tion suggested steps
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
4. Use Smart Update to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot
5. Transfer the tgz file back to the local \temp
6. Run upgrade__import to import the configuration
D. 1. Insert the F70 CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration using the latest upgrade utilities
2. Perform any requested upgrade verification suggested steps and re-export the configuration if needed
3. Save the export ” tgz file to a local c: \temp directory
4. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
5. Install again using the R70 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot
6. Run upgrade import to import the configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
True or false? After creating a snapshot of a Windows 2003 SP2 Security Management Server, you can restore it on a Secure Platform R76 Security Management Server, except you must load interface information manually.
A. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.20.
B. False, you cannot run the Check Point snapshot utility on a Windows gateway.

C. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.10.
D. False, all configuration information conveys to the new system, including the interface configuration settings.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend before major changes, such as upgrades?
A. snapshot
B. upgrade export
C. backup
D. migrate export
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend every couple of months, depending on how frequently you make changes to the network or policy?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. upgrade export
D. snapshot
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a maintenance window?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. backup export
D. snapshot
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Snapshot is available on which Security Management Server and Security Gateway platforms?
A. Solaris
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. Windows XP Server
D. Secure Platform
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The file snapshot generates is very large, and can only be restored to:
A. The device that created it, after it has been upgraded

B. Individual members of a cluster configuration
C. Windows Server class systems
D. A device having exactly the same Operating System as the device that created the file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Restoring a snapshot-created file on one machine that was created on another requires which of the following to be the same on both machines?
A. Windows version, objects database, patch level, and interface configuration
B. Windows version, interface configuration, and patch level
C. State, Secure Platform version, and patch level
D. State, Secure Platform version, and objects database
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be retrieved from which source?
A. HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server
B. Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server
C. Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server
D. Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
When upgrading Check Point products in a distributed environment, in which order should you upgrade these components?
1 GUI Client
2 Security Management Server
3 Security Gateway
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 3, 1
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When using migrate to upgrade a Secure Management Server, which of the following is included in the migration?
A. Smart Event database
B. Smart Reporter database
C. classes. C file
D. System interface configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. When doing this, what is required of the two machines? They must both have the same:
A. Products installed.
B. Interfaces configured.
C. State.
D. Patch level.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Both machines must have the same number of interfaces installed and configured before migration can be attempted.
B. The new machine may not have more Check Point products installed than the original Security Management Server.
C. All product databases are included in the migration.
D. The Security Management Server on the new machine must be the same or greater than the version on the original machine.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure?
1) Export databases from source.
2) Connect target to network.
3) Prepare the source machine for export.
4) Import databases to target.
5) Install new version on target.
6) Test target deployment.
A. 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
C. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4
D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
During a Security Management Server migrate export, the system:
A. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Event database.
B. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Reporter database.
C. Creates a backup archive for all the Check Point configuration settings.
D. Saves all system settings and Check Point product configuration settings to a file.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
If no flags are defined during a back up on the Security Management Server, where does the system store the *.tgz file?
A. /var/opt/backups
B. /var/backups
C. /var/CPbackup/backups

D. /var/tmp/backups
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which is NOT a valid option when upgrading Cluster Deployments?
A. Full Connectivity Upgrade
B. Fast path Upgrade
C. Minimal Effort Upgrade
D. Zero Downtime
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
In a zero downtime firewall cluster environment what command do you run to avoid switching problems around the cluster.
A. cphaconf set mc_relod
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
In a “zero downtime” scenario, which command do you run manually after all cluster members are upgraded?
A. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set mc_relod
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which command provides cluster upgrade status?
A. cphaprob status
B. cphaprob ldstat
C. cphaprob fcustat
D. cphaprob tablestat
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R76. John knows that you can verify the upgrade process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool. When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he sees the warning message:
Title: Incompatible pattern.
What is happening?
A. R76 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before upgrade process to complete it successfully.
B. Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will be 
aborted.
C. Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational.
D. The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R76. If the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R76 Security Gateways.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a GAiA Gateway?
A. netstat rn > [filename].txt
B. ipconfig a > [filename].txt
C. ifconfig > [filename].txt
D. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. a storage pool on Disk 2 and Disk 3
B. a spanned volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 3
D. a mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
E. a RAID-5 volume on Disk 1, Disk 2, and Disk 3
F. a storage pool on Disk 1 and Disk 3
G. a spanned volume on Disk 0 and Disk 4
H. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. A mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
B. A storage pool on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. A storage pool on Disk 1 and Disk 3
D. A mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Served, and Server3. You create a server group named ServerGroup1. You discover the error message shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely by using Server Manager. What should you do?
A. On DC1, run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
B. On Server2, run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
C. On Server2/ modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add a computer account named Server2, and then restart Server2.
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. An iSCSI SAN is available on the network. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. You create a LUN on the SAN. You need to provide VM1 with access to the LUN. The solution must prevent other virtual machines from accessing the LUN. What should you configure?
A. A fixed-size VHDX
B. A fixed-size VHD
C. A dynamically expanding VHD
D. A dynamically expanding VHDX
E. A pass-through disk
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a print server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a local group named Group1. You share a printer named Printer1 on Server1. You need to configure Printer1 to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the members of Group1, the Server Operators group, the Administrators group, and the Print Operators group can send print jobs to Printer1. Prevent other users from sending print jobs to Printer1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Assign the Print permission to the Server Operators group
B. Remove the permissions for the Creator Owner group.
C. Remove the permissions for the Everyone group.
D. Assign the Print permission to Group1.
E. Assign the Print permission to the Administrators group.
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6
You have a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has two dual- core processors and 32 GB of RAM. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1. You create two virtual machines on Server1 that each have 8 GB of memory. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for both virtual machines to access memory.What should you configure on each virtual machine?
A. Resource control
B. Dynamic Memory

C. NUMA topology
D. Memory weight
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. the dism.exe command
B. the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet
C. the imagex.exe command
D. the setup.exe command
E. the ocsetup.exe command
F. the Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
G. the Install-Module cmdlet
H. the Install-RoleService cmdlet
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Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. You need to configure storage for a virtual machine to meet the following requirements:
– Support up to 3 TB of data on a single hard disk.
– Allocate disk space as needed.
– Use a portable storage format.
What should you configure?
A. A pass-through disk
B. A fixed-size VHD
C. A dynamically expanding VHD
D. A fixed-size VHDX
E. A dynamically expanding VHDX
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
You have a virtual machine named VM1. You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM1. You plan to use VM1 as an image that will be distributed to sales users to demonstrate the features of a custom application. The custom application only requires the Web Server (IIS) server role to be installed. You need to ensure that the VHD file for VM1 only contains the required Windows Server 2012 R2 source files. Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. ocsetup.exe
C. imagex.exe
D. servermanagercmd.exe
70-410 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named Employees. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1. You link GP1 to the Employees OU. You need to ensure that GP1 does not apply to the members of a group named Managers. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of Employees
B. The WMI filter for GP1
C. The Block Inheritance option for Employees
D. The Security settings of GP1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the following table.
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You plan to create a snapshot of VM1. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the snapshot of VM1. What should you do before you create the snapshot?
A. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
B. Run the Convert-VHD cmdlet.
C. Decrease the Maximum RAM
D. Decrease the Minimum RAM.
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a shared folder named Share1. Share1 contains the home folder of each user. All users have the necessary permissions to access only their home folder. The users report that when they access Share1, they can see the home folders of all the users. You need to ensure that the users see only their home folder when they access Share1. What should you do from Server1?
A. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of the volume that contains Share1.
B. From Server Manager, modify the properties of the volume that contains Share1.
C. From Server Manager, modify the properties of Share1.
D. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of Share1.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) installed. You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1. You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Install-ADDSDomainController
B. Install-ADDSDomatn
C. Install-ADDSForest
D. Install-WindowsFeature
70-410 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. You need to ensure that when new client computers join the domain, their computer accounts are created in OU1 by default. What should you do?
A. From a command prompt, run the redircmp.exe command.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Move-ADObject cmdlet.
C. From Ldp, configure the properties of the Computers container.
D. From ADSI Edit, configure the properties of the OU1 object.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a user account named User1 that resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. GPO1 is used to publish several applications to a user named User1. In the Users container, you create a new user named User2. You need to ensure that the same applications are published to User2. What should you do?
A. Modify the security of GPO1.
B. Modify the settings in GPO1.
C. Link a WMI filter to GPO1.
D. Move User2 to OU1.
70-410 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. L2P.com has a server, named L2P-SR07, which has the AD DS, DHCP, and DNS server roles installed. L2P.com also has a server, named L2P-SR08, which has the DHCP, and Remote Access server roles installed. You have configured a server, which has the File and Storage Services server role installed, to automatically acquire an IP address. The server is named L2PSR09. You then create a filter on L2P-SR07. Which of the following is a reason for this configuration?
A. To make sure that L2P-SR07 issues L2P-SR09 an IP address.
B. To make sure that L2P-SR07 does not issue L2P-SR09 an IP address.
C. To make sure that L2P-SR09 acquires a constant IP address from L2P-SR08 only.
D. To make sure that L2P-SR09 is configured with a static IP address.
Correct Answer: B
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Question No : 22  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question No : 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.

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You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then CustomerID.Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED

(SourceID, CustomerID));
070-461 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 24  You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to look up telephone numbers for these companies. The view has the following definition:
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You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this view. What should you do?
A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Answer: D
Question No : 25 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Employee and Person. The tables have the following definitions:
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Users are able to use single INSERT statements or INSERT…SELECT statements into this view. You need to ensure that users are able to use a single statement to insert records into both Employee and Person tables by using the VwEmployee view. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE @ID INT, @FirstName NVARCHAR(25), @LastName NVARCHAR(25),
@PersonID
INT, @EmployeeNumber NVARCHAR(15)
SELECT @ID = ID, @FirstName = FirstName, @LastName = LastName,
@EmployeeNumber
= EmployeeNumber
FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
VALUES(@ID, @FirstName, @LastName)
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
VALUES(@PersonID, @EmployeeNumber
End
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT

AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName FROM VwEmployee
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM VwEmployee
End
070-461 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 26  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. The Products table has the following definition:
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You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
Answer: D
Question No : 27  A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
070-461 vce Answer: C

 

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Exam Code: 70-595
Exam Name: TS: Developing Business Process and Integration Solutions by Using Microsoft BizTalk Server 2010
Q&As: 50

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QUESTION 1
A BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution processes XML messages. The solution uses a single Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) activity and BAM tracking profile to extract content values from the message. Some of the values are bound to a receive port when the message is received. The other values are bound to a send port when the message is transmitted. At run time you find out that instead of one, two records are created in the BAM database for each processed message. One record contains only the values bound to the receive port. The second record contains only the values bound to the send port. You need to ensure that only one record is created that contains all the values for every message. What should you do?
A. Add a continuation and continuation ID to the tracking profile.
B. In the tracking profile, associate a unique value from the message payload to the ActivityID field.
C. Add a relationship to the tracking profile.
D. Add a document reference URL to the tracking profile.
70-595 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You are developing a BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration. In the Business Rule Composer, you create and save a policy named BonusPolicy that calculates an employees bonus based on year- to-date sales. You add a Call Rules shape to the orchestration. In the BizTalk Orchestration Designer, BonusPolicy is not listed in the menu of available policies to call. You need to make the policy available in the Orchestration Designer. What should you do?
A. Use the Rule Engine Deployment Wizard to export BonusPolicy.
B. In the Business Rules Composer, publish BonusPolicy.
C. In the Business Rules Composer, create a vocabulary with a definition that references the XML
schema used to evaluate BonusPolicy. Publish the vocabulary.
D. In the Business Rules Composer, use the Rule Store menu and load policies from the
BizTalkRuleEngineDb database.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A company tracks storage containers and integrates radio frequency identification (RFID) readers with a server shipping management system built on BizTalk Server 2010. You define a custom tag event named ContainerArrivedEvent. You use the RFID manager to add the SqlServerSink component to the RFID process. You need to ensure that the SqlServerSink component logs only the custom tag event. What should you specify for the EventTypes property?
A. ContainerArrivedEvent
B. the fully qualified assembly name
C. All
D. Generic
70-595 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You use BizTalk Server 2010 to send EDI purchase orders to three trading partners. All of the trading partners use the same version of the purchase order message but define custom codes for the product types. The trading partners confirm purchase order acknowledgements by email instead of through response messages. The standard purchase order schemas included with BizTalk do not include the custom product type codes for each trading partner. You need to ensure that each trading partners purchase order schema is the schema that is used for orders that are sent to them. What should you do?
A. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
B. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For
  the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
C. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
D. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration calls a Business Rules Engine policy. This policy evaluates test scores to determine whether a candidate passes or fails. The BizTalk solution and the policy are deployed. Business users have decided that the value of a passing score should be raised from 60% to 70%. You need to adjust the policy to reflect the modified rule parameter. What should you do?
A. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then deploy the new version.
B. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then publish the new version.
C. Create a new vocabulary in the Business Rules Composer. Add the new parameter to this vocabulary and then publish the vocabulary.
D. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer and create a different policy with a new name. Then copy the currently deployed version to the new policy and modify to reflect the changed parameter. Deploy the new policy.
70-595 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution uses Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) to collect business information. The solution contains a BAM view named OrderView. After you deploy the view, application users can log on to the BAM portal but the OrderView view does not appear to them. You need to ensure that the BAM portal displays the OrderView view to application users. What should you do?
A. Use the BizTalk Tracking Profile Utility (bttdeploy.exe) to redeploy the tracking profile used in this solution.
B. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to add a subscription for the OrderView view.
C. Create a Microsoft SQL Server logins for the users on the server that hosts the BAMPrimaryImport database.
D. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to grant the users access to the OrderView view.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION NO: 16
Scenario: A company had a single datacenter location with a single NetScaler installed. A second datacenter location was added and an administrator installed a second Citrix NetScaler at the second datacenter location. The NetScaler is used for load balancing internal infrastructure solutions. The administrator plans to configure the environment so that it will continue to work even if there is a datacenter failure. Only the primary datacenter location is connected to the Internet. The configuration has to be synchronized automatically so that the configuration of both appliances is always identical. How should the administrator configure the NetScaler devices so that continuity is maintained in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. As a GSLB cluster
B. In a VRRP configuration
C. As a high availability pair
D. As standalone appliances
1Y0-250 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 17
An administrator notices that a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair has changed the primary node several times in the past few days due to intermittent issues. What could the administrator configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. SNMP
B. Syslog
C. Route Monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
Which command-line interface command could an administrator use to display communication between the LDAP server and the NetScaler system?
A. cat /etc/krb5.conf
B. cat /etc/krb5.keytab
C. cat /tmp/aaad.debug
D. cat /var/log/aaad.debug
E. tail -f /var/log/aaad.debug
1Y0-250 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
Scenario: An administrator configured an LDAP authentication policy and bound it globally. The only system group configured on the Netscaler is NS_Admins. After reviewing the security logs, the administrator notices that users in the External_Contractors LDAP group are able to log on to NetScaler using SSH; however, members of the External_Contractors group are NOT authorized to run any commands. Which action could the administrator take to prevent the members of the External_Contractors LDAP Group from logging on to NetScaler using SSH without affecting other users?
A. Configure an authorization policy that allows logon only by members of the “External_Contractors” LDAP Group. Bind the new policy globally.
B. Specify (memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
C. Specify (!(memberOf=”CN=External_Contractors, CN=Groups, CN=example, CN=com”)) as a filter in the properties of the configured LDAP server.
D. Create a new command policy with a DENY action. Create a System Group named “External_Contractors” and assign the new command policy to the External_Contractors group.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no longer accepts traffic.
Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
1Y0-250 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 21
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file. What will the administrator need to decrypt the network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-server key
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Scenario: A number of administrators received the following error when they attempted to connect to the Configuration Utility using a secured HTTPS connection: The site’s security certificate is not trusted! One of the administrators installed a certificate from a trusted Certificate Authority on the NetScaler and is planning to configure the Configuration Utility to use this certificate.  Which NetScaler command must the administrator run at the command-line interface to configure
the Configuration Utility with the new certificate?
A. set ssl service
B. set ssl vserver
C. bind ssl service
D. bind ssl vserver
1Y0-250 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Scenario: A company currently has a working production XenApp and NetScaler environment. An administrator recently implemented a test NetScaler environment and tried to duplicate the NetScaler Gateway configuration from the production environment in the test environment. When the administrator configured the Secure Ticket Authority in the test environment, the Secure Ticket Authority showed a DOWN state. The administrator verified that the Secure Ticket Authority state
shows as UP on the production NetScaler. What should the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. NetScaler route table
B. NetScaler Gateway Resources
C. NetScaler Gateway Session Profiles
D. Secure Ticket Authority server IP address
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
When a user launches a published version of Notepad, the user receives the following error message: “Cannot connect to the Citrix XenApp server.SSL Error: The proxy denied access to 10; STA393B6A5D1088; 9764757E39D0BEBB0BFC66E9EE146FF4 port 1494.” What could be the cause of this error message?
A. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XML broker.
B. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
C. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
D. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the Secure Ticket Authority server.
1Y0-250 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Scenario: An administrator configured link load balancing to balance outbound traffic between two Internet Service Providers. When testing the configuration, the administrator notices NetScaler is unable to connect to any external addresses. Which mode should the administrator verify is enabled?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Use Subnet IP
D. Use Source IP
1Y0-250 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 26
Scenario: After a restart of a single NetScaler, users complain that the logon page has changed. An administrator plans to verify that a startup script exists and contains the necessary command. Where can the administrator find the startup script?
A. /etc
B. /dev
C. /nsconfig
D. /netscaler
Answer: C

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Realistic Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Questions Study Guide CCIE Wireless Written Exam [With Video]

Are the newest Cisco 400-351 dumps exam available? “CCIE Wireless Written Exam” is the name of Cisco 400-351 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Realistic Cisco 400-351 dumps exam questions study guide CCIE Wireless Written exam. Pass4itsure Cisco 400-351 dumps exam questions answers are updated (261 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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400-351 dumps

Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-351 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION NO: 129
The Transtheoretical Model assumes that individuals
A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.
B. Only progress forward through the stages.

C. Move back and forth along the stage continuum.
D. Tend to use behavioral processes during the earlier stages of change.
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 130
If an individual is in the action stage, he or she
A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.
B. Participates in some exercise, but does so irregularly.
C. Has been physically active on a regular basis for less than 6 months.
D. Has been physically active on a regular basis for more than 6 months.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 131
Which does NOT help to establish a supportive relationship?
A. Exhibit empathy.
B. Legitimize concerns.
C. Respect the person’s abilities and efforts.
D. Address the agenda.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 132
The five A’s of counseling are
A. Address, Assess, Act, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
B. Address, Assess,Advise, Assist, and Act.
C. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
D. Act, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
400-351 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 133

Which of the following would assist anxious people before an exercise test?
A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.
B. Thoroughly explain the exercise test.
C. Familiarize them with the exercise equipment by brief practice.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 134
Which of the following are NOT symptoms of depression?
A. Hearing voices.
B. Change in sleep patterns.
C. Irritability.
D. All of the above.
400-351 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 135
Which of the following are symptoms of anxiety?
A. Panic attacks.
B. Increased nervousness.
C. Feelings of being “on edge.”
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 136
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 137
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 138
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine whether to
conduct an assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 139
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 140
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 142
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 143
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 145
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 146
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: A

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