[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Latest Cisco 642-737 Dumps CCNP Wireless Exam Preparation Materials With 100% Pass Rate Video Pass Q1-Q30

What are the tools available for performing 642-737 dumps? Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 (IAUWS 642-737) is a qualifying exam for the CCNP Wireless certifications. The CCNP Wireless exam 642-737 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use exam team Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at exam testing center. The user must complete CCNP Wireless prior to taking this 642-737 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 642-737
Exam Name: Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
Q&As: 207

exam 642-737 Dumps Related Exams

  • 642-732 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
  • 642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
  • 642-742 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks (IUWVN) v2.0
  • 642-747 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Mobility Services
  • 300-360 Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-365 Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-370 Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-375 Securing Wireless Enterprise Networks

exam 642-737 Dumps Related Certifications

  • Wireless LAN
  • WAASSE
  • Wireless BYOD Specialist
  • VPN and Security
  • Unified Communications
  • Substation Automation
  • TelePresence Video
  • Storage Networking

The Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0 (642-737 IAUWS) version is a 90 minutes test with 50-60 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to the wireless network from security threats via appropriate security policies and best practices, to properly implement security standards, and to properly configure wireless security components. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the IAUWS Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security course in exam.

exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 642-737 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-30)

QUESTION 1
A lobby ambassador is creating guest access accounts. At which two locations can the accounts be stored? (Choose two.)
A. NAC guest server
B. Active directory
C. WLAN controller
D. WCS
E. ACS
642-737 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring a Cisco AnyConnect client. What module is selected to allow for reporting and diagnostics?
A. NAM
B. Posture
C. Telemetry
D. VPN
E. DART
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
MFP is enabled globally on a WLAN with default settings on a single controller wireless network. Older client devices are disconnected from the network during a deauthentication attack. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The client devices do not support CCXv5.
B. The client devices do not support WPA.
C. The NTP server is not configured on the controller.
D. The MFP on the WLAN is set to optional.
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What does the eping mobility_peer_IP_address command do?
A. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the management interface.
B. It tests EoIP connectivity via port 97 though the AP manager interface.
C. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the management interface.
D. It tests UDP connectivity via port 16666 through the AP manager interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer needs to block SSH traffic going to the WLC, which does not originate on the management interface. Where should the ACL be applied to accomplish this with the least configuration?
A. CPU
B. Management interface
C. WLAN interfaces
D. SSID
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An engineer is troubleshooting a FlexConnect authentication to a local RADIUS server. What debug command can discover the issue on the controller?
A. debug lwapp reap
B. debug dot11 mgmtmsg
C. debug hreapaaa
D. debug lwapp reap mgmt
642-737 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An engineer is configuring NAC on a Wireless LAN Controller. What two CLI commands are required to create NAC out-of-band integration for SSID Cisco? (Choose two.)
A. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 10
B. config interface quarantine vlan Cisco 0
C. config wlan nac enable Cisco
D. config guest-lan nac enable Cisco
E. config wlan apgroup nac wlan Cisco
F. config wlan apgroup nac guest-lan Cisco
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
The Cisco WLC v7.0 is configured for external 802.1X and EAP by using the WPA2 association of wireless clients when using the Cisco Secure ACS v4.2. Which two items are required in the Cisco Secure ACS network configuration to enable correct AAA? (Choose two.)
A. AP IP address
B. WLC virtual IP address
C. WLC management IP address
D. WLC AP management IP address
E. hostname matching the WLC case-sensitive name
F. authentication using RADIUS
G. authentication using TACACS+
642-737 exam Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 10
An engineer has narrowed down an authentication issue to the client laptop. What three items should be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)
A. The user account is the same in the certificate.
B. The Subject Key Identifier is configured correctly.
C. The client certificate is formatted as X.509 version 3.
D. Validate server certificate is disabled.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
An engineer is going to enable EAP on a new WLAN and is ensuring he has the necessary components. What component uses EAP and 802.1x to pass user authentication to the authenticator?
A. AP
B. Controller
C. Supplicant
D. AAA Server
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
Why is the client failing to authenticate with the AAA server?
A. excessive number of authentication attempts for username
B. incorrect read/write credentials for username
C. incorrect IP address being sent by client
D. incorrect authentication for username
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A Cisco WLC v7.0 has been only initially configured through the console setup CLI wizard. A new AP has just finished association with the controller. What is the default mode of remote access to the AP?
A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSH
D. Telnet
E. access is disabled
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 14
Which two firewall protocol port(s) need open access for secure management access to an anchor WLC for guest access? (Choose two.)
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 80
D. TCP 8080
E. TCP 443
F. UDP 123
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
Which option verifies that a wireless client has authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
642-737 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which two fast roaming algorithms will allow a WLAN client to roam to a new AP and re- establish a new session key without a full reauthentication of the WLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. PMK
B. PTK
C. MIC
D. GTK
E. CKM
F. PKC
Correct Answer: EF

QUESTION 17
Customer wants to configure Wireless client authentication using digtial certificates with PKI. What happens after the signer encrypts the hash with the private key of the signer during the certification signature process?
A. The verifier obtains the public key of the signer.
B. The encrypted hash is appended to the document as the signature.
C. The verifier decrypts the signature of the signer using the public key.
D. The verifier makes a hash of the received document and compares it to the decrypted signature hash.
642-737 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What is the default authentication protocol that is used for web authentication?
A. MD5-CHAP
B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. LEAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option verifies that a wireless client has associated but is not yet authenticated to a WLAN when performing NAC using the Cisco NAC Appliance Manager and Server?
A. Cisco CAM OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
B. Cisco CAS OOB Management > Devices > Discovered Clients
C. Cisco CAM Monitor > View Online Users
D. Cisco CAS Monitor > View Online Users
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Configuring the Cisco Secure ACS with a self-signed certificate supports which requirement?
A. when no user certificate is required
B. when a CA-signed certificate is required for the user
C. when a self-signed certificate Class 4 is required for the user
D. when a self-signed certificate Class 0 is required for the user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which type of attack is characterized by an evil twin?
A. DoS
B. man in the middle
C. jamming
D. eavesdropping
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which protocol port(s) need open access when deploying NAC appliances to communicate with the Cisco WLC v7.0 to move an authenticated user from the quarantine VLAN to the access VLAN?
A. UDP 16666
B. UDP 514
C. UDP 5246 and 5247
D. UDP 161 and 162
E. TCP 443
642-737 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two considerations must a network engineer have when planning for voice over wireless roaming? (Choose two.)
A. Roaming with only 802.1x authentication requires full reauthentication.
B. Full reauthentication introduces gaps in a voice conversation.
C. Roaming occurs when e phone has seen at least four APs.
D. Roaming occurs when the phone has reached -80 dBs or below.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An engineer would like to use an EAP supplicant that uses PKI to authenticate the WLAN network and client, as well as a client certificate. What EAP method can be used?
A. PEAPv1
B. PEAPv0
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
642-737 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
642-737 dumps
A client reports being unable to log into the wireless network, which uses PEAPv2. Which two issues appear in the output? (Choose two.)
A. There is a problem with the client supplicant.
B. The AP has the incorrect RADIUS server address.
C. The AP has lost IP connectivity to the authentication server.
D. The EAP client timeout value should be increased.
E. The authentication server is misconfigured on the controller.
F. The authentication server is misconfigured in the WLAN.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which option correctly lists the EAP protocol(s) that can be configured on an autonomous AP for local authentication?
A. MAC
B. LEAP and EAP-FAST
C. MAC, LEAP, and EAP-FAST
D. MAC, EAP-FAST, EAP-PEAP, and EAP-TLS
642-737 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which three actions can be configured for EAP authentication on a Cisco 1200 Series AP? (Choose three.)
A. Specify the shared secret and ports.
B. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 1 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
C. Set the EAP Authentication type Priority 5 field to the server IP address under Default Server Priorities.
D. Enter the IP address of the authentication server in the Server field.
E. Enter the IP address of the management IP address of the Cisco WLC.
F. Specify EAP account on server and ports.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
When using the Microsoft WLAN AutoConfig feature, which 802.1X authentication method is not supported natively by Windows 7?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
D. PEAP with GTC
642-737 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which device provides IDS and IPS protection in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network against wireless clients with viruses and worms?
A. Cisco NAC Guest Server
B. Cisco Secure Access Control System
C. Cisco WLC
D. Cisco WCS
E. Cisco NAC Appliance Manager
F. Cisco NAC Appliance Server
G. Cisco IPS Appliance
Correct Answer: G

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642-737 dumps
This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. exam Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam 642-737 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, exam Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Best Cisco 642-732 Dumps PDF CCNP Wireless Exam Certification Material Will Be More Popular Q1-Q24

What are the tools available for performing 642-732 dumps? Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0 (CUWSS 642-732) is a qualifying exam for the CCNP Wireless certifications. The CCNP Wireless exam 642-732 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use exam team Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at exam testing center. The user must complete CCNP Wireless prior to taking this 642-732 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 642-732
Exam Name: Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
Q&As: 193

exam 642-732 Dumps Related Exams

  • 642-732 Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0
  • 642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0
  • 642-742 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks (IUWVN) v2.0
  • 642-747 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Mobility Services
  • 300-360 Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-365 Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-370 Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
  • 300-375 Securing Wireless Enterprise Networks

exam 642-732 Dumps Related Certifications

  • Wireless LAN
  • WAASSE
  • Wireless BYOD Specialist
  • VPN and Security
  • Unified Communications
  • Substation Automation
  • TelePresence Video
  • Storage Networking

The Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey (CUWSS) v2.0 (642-732 CUWSS) version is a 75 minutes test with 50-60 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to plan and conduct a wireless site survey, to design the RF network and to conduct a post installation assessment to ensure compliancy. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the CUWSS Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey course in exam.

exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 642-732 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-24)

QUESTION 1
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
642-732 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 2
You have a multinational customer that would like you to perform a wireless site survey for a new manufacturing facility in Singapore. They have had a local vendor install a point-to- point wireless bridge link between two buildings 1 km apart.
The ground between the buildings is flat but because facilities are in the mountains, dense fog is an issue. There are no line of sight issues between the buildings. The link is experiencing errors and throughput issues. Currently the two radios are set to operate at 2.4 GHz and the transmit power is set to 7 dBm with 7 dBm antennas. What do you need to take into consideration when performing the site survey for this link?
A. Change the radio power to 17 dBm.
B. Change the radio power to 20 dBm and replace with a 16 dBm antenna.
C. Change the radio power to 29 dBm.
D. Change the radio power to 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 3
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. blocks no more than 20 percent
B. blocks no more than 40 percent
C. blocks no more than 60 percent
D. comprises a single zone to keep clear
E. comprises multiple zones of which the first inside zone is the most important to keep clear
F. comprises multiple zones of which the outside zone is the most important to keep clear
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Given an AP that can transmit at 100 mW and the client at 40 mW, which power setting should be used for a site survey?
A. 10 mW
B. 20 mW
C. 40 mW
D. 60 mW
E. 80 mW
F. 100 mW
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 6
When ordering the software licenses for a Cisco WLAN project, what are the minimum software packages required if the location requires 390 lightweight APs, 100 of which will be used for location services, and a Cisco 3310 MSE?
A. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
B. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 500 device license for the MSE.
C. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
D. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 1000 device license for the MSE.
E. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 2000 device license for the MSE.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. single elliptical area surrounding an RF line of sight
B. multiple elliptical areas surrounding an RF line of sight
C. extends vertically
D. extends horizontally
E. extends three-dimensionally
642-732 exam Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 8
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a data collection to validate wireless coverage. At what two locations should a linear point collection be performed? (Choose two.)
A. office cubicles
B. private offices
C. auditorium
D. warehouse
E. conference rooms
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 10
What three pieces of information should be included in an installation report? (Choose three.)
A. software versions of each AP
B. configuration files for each WLC
C. switch connection for each MAP
D. license file for each RAP
E. radio status for each AP
F. mobility group name for each WLC
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation

QUESTION 11
A company has requested an indoor wireless survey in a multi-tenant building for 2.4GHz data and 5GHz voice services. Data clients will require three spatial streams and 4×4 MIMO technology. What is the Cisco recommended Access Point for performing this survey?
A. 600
B. 1600
C. 2600
D. 3600
642-732 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices frame collisions occurring when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue is the engineer observing?
642-732 dumps
A. hidden node
B. exposed node
C. co-channel interference
D. CSMA-CA
E. backhaul latency
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 13
You have a customer that is renovating a historic building for a new headquarters. The building was once an old manufacturing plant. It is constructed of brick with heavy timber beams. What type of RF issues do you expect to see while
performing the site survey?
A. The RF signal will be reflected by the brick walls.
B. The RF signal will be absorbed by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
C. The RF signal will be diffused by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
D. The brick walls and wooden beams and floors will cause the RF signal to be diffracted.
642-732 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS. What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
You have a customer that operates a large open pit coal mine in the western United States. They need to deploy a wireless point-to-point bridge link across the mine. The distance of the link is 1.5 miles. Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey for this bridge link? (Choose three.)
A. What specific EPA training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
B. Is a specific Mine Safety and Health Administration training course and certificate required prior to entering the customer site?
C. What specific FCC training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
D. Will any specialized equipment or clothing will be required to perform the site survey?
E. Will customer escorts be needed during the site survey?
642-732 exam Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
What are the best practice minimum and recommended signal level values for a Location Services Survey?
A. minimum: -65dBm; recommended: 60 dBm
B. minimum: -70dBm; recommended: -68 dBm
C. minimum: -75dBm; recommended: -72dBm
D. minimum: -80dBm; recommended: -78dBm
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
Which three post-installation checks should an engineer perform after a new wireless installation? (Choose three.)
A. Check for co-channel interference.
B. Check for adequate signal levels as surveyed.
C. Conduct a passive survey of 802.11a and 802.11b.
D. Conduct a passive and active survey of each media type in use.
E. Verify that the minimum data rate is 24 Mbps.
F. Verify that the cell overlap is 20%.
642-732 dumps Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
642-732 dumps
A company requires a multi-point bridge solution with Cisco 1400 series bridges. The central bridge (B1) is set to 10 dBm, the manufacturing remote bridge (B2) is set to 20 dBm, the inventory remote bridge (B3) is set to 20 dBm, and the shop remote bridge (B4) is set to 10 dBm. Which option is the maximum allowed power setting for all four bridges?
A. B1=12dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
B. B1=12dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
C. B1=24dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
D. B1=24dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
E. B1=20dBmB2=20dBmB3=20dBmB4=20dBm
F. B1=10dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
In performing a post-deployment audit, you are concerned by significant changes in measured RSSI and SNR values taken on a wireless client in one location. How do you explain the differences in these values?
A. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffusion in the environment.
B. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of multipath in the environment.
C. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal absorption in the environment.
D. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffraction in the environment.
642-732  pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which tool can best provide throughput verification?
A. WLC > Monitor > Clients > LinkTest
B. WaveDeploy
C. InSSIDer
D. Xirrus Wi-Fi Inspector
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 21
An engineer is surveying a customer site for additional wireless coverage. What two menus will an engineer navigate to in order to determine the maximum number of supported APs? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor – Summary
B. Controller – Inventory
C. Management – Summary
D. Wireless – Access Points
E. Monitor – Access Points
642-732 vce Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which two details are specified in the Executive Summary section of the Site Survey Report? (Choose two.)
A. proposed location for each AP
B. customer and site surveyor contact details
C. total number of APs
D. expressed requirements set by customer
E. coverage map
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which two options describes the vertical RF coverage pattern of an antenna? (Choose two.)
A. View from the side
B. View from above
C. Azimuth
D. H-plane
E. E-plane
642-732 exam Correct Answer: AE
Explanation

QUESTION 24
How many location points are needed to validate both 802.11b/g and 802.11a in the Cisco WCS Calibration?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
E. 300
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

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What if I don’t pass the exam? How do I claim Refund?

Any exam.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of 642-732 dumps exam on exam.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

642-732 dumps
This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. exam Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam 642-732 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, exam Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

I believe that people want to have good prospects of career whatever industry they work in. Of course, there is no exception in the competitive IT industry. IT Professionals working in the IT area also want to have good opportunities for promotion of job and salary. A lot of IT professional know that exam 642-732 dumps exam exam tests can help you meet these aspirations. exam is a website which help you successfully pass Cisco 642-732 dumps.

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Real Cisco 640-916 Dumps PDF Youtube CCNA Data Center Exam Preparation Materials Covers All Key Points Q1-Q24

What are the tools available for performing 640-916 dumps? Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies (TSHOOT 640-916) is a qualifying exam for the CCNA Data Center certifications. The CCNA Data Center exam 640-916 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use exam team Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at exam testing center. The user must complete CCNA Data Center prior to taking this 640-916 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 640-916
Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 182

exam 640-916 Dumps Related Exams

  • 640-911 Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
  • 640-916 Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
  • 200-150 Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
  • 200-155 Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

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The Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies (640-916 TSHOOT) version is a test with 182 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise of fundamental Data center technologies like network and server Virtualization, Storage, Convergent I/O and network services like load balancing in exam.

exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 640-916 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-24)

QUESTION 1
Which two are configuration elements selected during initial setup of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet bits
B. SNMPv3 community strings
C. VDC mode
D. Default interface layer
E. Default interface state
F. CoPP
640-916 exam Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Adapter FEX
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module
D. Virtual Supervisor Module
E. License key
F. VM-Fex
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 3
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two options are two functions of the data center core layer? (Choose two.)
A. manages access control and policy
B. enables routing between VLANs
C. creates separate collision domains
D. acts as a high speed egress point
E. implements security policy
F. provides a resilient Layer 3 routed fabric
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a server for storage connectivity using a Cisco MDS switch. The engineer connects the server to the switch, powers up the server, and then wants to verify that the server has logged into the fabric. Which command does the engineer use to verify fabric login?
A. show flogi database
B. show vsan database
C. show interface
D. show zoneset active
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.)
A. private VLANs
B. port state migration
C. access control lists
D. port security
E. SPAN
F. ERSPAN
G. QoS marking
Correct Answer: CDEFG

QUESTION 7
Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM?
A. control
B. management
C. packet
D. backplane
E. SVI
640-916 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the Destination VIF field in the VNTag header?
A. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
B. identify the virtual satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
C. identify the physical satellite port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch
D. identify the fabric port on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series fabric extender
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to add four native Fibre Channel ports to a pair of UCS fabric interconnects. What two items would be the result of the engineer configuring four universal ports in the fabric interconnect expansion card for storage mode and selecting apply? (Choose two.)
A. The fabric interconnect port module reboots.
B. The fabric interconnect reboots.
C. The ports immediately transition to storage ports.
D. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel storage ports.
E. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel host adapter ports.
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP
B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E
C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP
D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports.
D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
A storage engineer has a new requirement to have control plane and data plane separation between the financing and student storage pools. What SAN technology can be used to facilitate this?
A. Zones
B. Zone Sets
C. VSANs
D. Port Security
E. VLANs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. aggregation
C. access
D. distribution
E. services
640-916 exam Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP get
B. local login
C. server discovery
D. firmware downloads
E. server boot
F. backup jobs
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 16
Based on a modular approach in network design, what are the two functionalities of the data center core layer? (Choose two.)
A. high-speed transport
B. connection between WAN and server farm blocks
C. access-list checking and filtering
D. data encryption
E. NAT
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.)
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
E. NFS
F. CIFS
Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 18
What data center networking technology is used to converge storage and IP networks within a data center?
A. ATA
B. FCIP
C. iSCSI
D. FCoE
640-916 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
What are three advantages to running FabricPath in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose three.)
A. provides multichassis EtherChannel capabilities
B. improves convergence times
C. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
D. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
E. has L2 multipath forwarding capabilities
F. uses 802.1q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 20
Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vCenter server?
A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown
B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile
C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled
D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdataN1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile
640-916 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high availability mesh?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3
E. 12
F. 14
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An administrator has installed two Cisco VIC adapters. The administrator has also configured four virtual network interface cards and two virtual host bus adapters. Using this configuration, how many PCI bus addresses will be presented to the server operating system?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
640-916 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which three options are characteristics of a data center access layer switch? (Choose three.)
A. host connectivity
B. firewall connectivity
C. QoS marking
D. spanning-tree edge ports
E. high-speed packet switching
Correct Answer: ACD

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This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. exam Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam 640-916 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, exam Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Latest Upload Cisco 300-135 Dumps Vce CCNP Routing and Switching Certification Exam Youtube Guide Q1-Q18

What are the tools available for performing 300-135 dumps? Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT 300-135) is a qualifying exam for the CCNP Routing and Switching certifications. The CCNP Routing and Switching exam 300-135 dumps vce exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use exam team Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at exam testing center. The user must complete Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching prior to taking this 300-135 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 647

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  • 300-135 Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks

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  • TelePresence Video
  • Storage Networking

The Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (300-135 TSHOOT) version is a 2-hour test with 15-25 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks and use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting.

exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-135 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-18)

QUESTION 1
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site- to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP is a protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco routers, bridges, access servers, and switches. CDP allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices, in particular, neighbors running lower-layer, transparent protocols. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the SNMP agent address of neighboring devices. This feature enables applications to send SNMP
queries to neighboring devices. In this case, the line protocol is up which means that the physical layer is operational (layer 1) but the data link layer is not.

QUESTION 8
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following?
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
300-135 exam Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level.
They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
R1(config)#end
R1#debug ip packet 199 detail
Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1.
D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp
neighbors command. In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
300-135 exam Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Any exam.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of 300-135 dumps exam on exam.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.
300-135 dumps
This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Cisco. exam Cisco exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Cisco does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam 300-135 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, exam Cisco recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “skills measured” section.

I believe that people want to have good prospects of career whatever industry they work in. Of course, there is no exception in the competitive IT industry. IT Professionals working in the IT area also want to have good opportunities for promotion of job and salary. A lot of IT professional know that exam 300-135 dumps exam exam tests can help you meet these aspirations. exam is a website which help you successfully pass Cisco 300-135 dumps.
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What are the tools available for performing 300-115 dumps? Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 300-115) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certifications. The CCDP exam 300-115 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use exam team Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at exam testing center. The user must complete Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP prior to taking this 300-115 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 647

exam 300-115 Dumps Related Exams

  • 642-871 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
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  • 642-874 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
  • 300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
  • 300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
  • 300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

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  • Wireless LAN
  • WAASSE
  • Wireless BYOD Specialist
  • VPN and Security
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  • TelePresence Video
  • Storage Networking

The Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (300-115 SWITCH) version is a 2-hour test with 30-40 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise in planning, configuring, and verifying the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions that use the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture.

exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-115 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-27)

QUESTION 1
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QUESTION 2
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QUESTION 5
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QUESTION 6
Drag and Drop
Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
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QUESTION 7
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QUESTION 9
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QUESTION 10
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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right.
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QUESTION 13
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QUESTION 14
Drag and Drop
PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter.
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QUESTION 15
Drag and Drop
PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
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QUESTION 16
Drag and Drop
STP Timers
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QUESTION 17
Drag and Drop
Port Cost / Switch Port Priority / Port Priority
Select and Place:
300-115 dumps
300-115 exam Correct Answer:
300-115 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Drag and Drop
Guard Root / Guard Loop
Select and Place:
300-115 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-115 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Drag and Drop
STP Timer Delay
Select and Place:
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps Correct Answer:
300-115 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Drag and Drop
LLDP-TLV
Select and Place:
300-115 dumps
Correct Answer:
300-115 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left to the matching Layer 2 protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
300-115 dumps
300-115 pdf Correct Answer:
300-115 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
Lab Simulation – AAA dot1x
SWITCH.com is an IT company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of two layer 2 only switches; DSW1 and ASW1. The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping. VLAN 20 is a new VLAN that will be used to provide the shipping personnel access to the server. Corporate polices do not allow layer 3 functionality to be enabled on the switches.
For security reasons, it is necessary to restrict access to VLAN 20 in the following manner:
– Users connecting to VLAN 20 via portfO/1 on ASW1 must be authenticated before they are given access to the network.
Authentication is to be done via a Radius server:
– Radius server host: 172.120.40.46
– Radius key: rad123
– Authentication should be implemented as close to the host as possible.
– Devices on VLAN 20 are restricted to the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24.
– Packets from devices in the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24 should be allowed on VLAN 20.
– Packets from devices in any other address range should be dropped on VLAN 20.
– Filtering should be implemented as close to the serverfarm as possible
The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date. You have been tasked with implementing the above access control as a pre-condition to installing the servers. You must use the
available IOS switch features.
300-115 dumps
A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
1. Verification of Pre-configuration:
a. Check that the denoted vlan [vlan20] is created in both switches and ports [fa0/1 of ASW1] are assigned.
b. Take down the radius-server ip [172.120.39.46] and the key [rad123].
c. Take down the IP range [172.120.40.0/24] to be allowed the given vlan [vlan20]
2. Configure the Port based authentication on ASW1:
Enable AAA on the switch:
ASW1> enable
ASW1# conf t
ASW1(config)# aaa new-model
The new-model keyword refers to the use of method lists, by which authentication methods and sources
can be grouped or organized. Define the server along with its secret shared password:
ASW1(config)# aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
ASW1(config)# radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123
This command causes the RADIUS server defined on the switch to be used for 802.1x authentication.
Enable 802.1x on the switch:
ASW1(config)# dot1x system-auth-control
Configure Fa0/1 to use 802.1x:
ASW1(config)# interface fastEthernet 0/1
ASW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
ASW1(config-if)# dot1x port-control auto
Notice that the word “auto” will force connected PC to authenticate through the 802.1x exchange.
ASW1(config-if)# exit
ASW1# copy running-config startup-config
3. Filter the traffic and create vlan access-map to restrict the traffic only for a range on DSW1 Define an access-list:
DSW1> enable
DSW1# conf t
(syntax: ip access-list {standard | extended} acl-name)
DSW1(config)# ip access-list standard 10
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# exit
Define an access-map which uses the access-list above:
(syntax: vlan access-map map_name [0-65535] )
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 10
(syntax: match ip address {acl_number | acl_name})
DSW1(config-access-map)# match ip address 10
DSW1(config-access-map)# action forward
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 20
(drop other networks)
DSW1(config-access-map)# action drop
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
Apply a vlan-map into a vlan:
(syntax: vlan filter mapname vlan-list list)
DSW1(config)# vlan filter MYACCMAP vlan-list 20
DSW1# copy running-config startup-config
4. Note:
It is not possible to verify the configuration in this lab. All we have do the correct configurations. Most of the exam takers report that ” copy running-config startup- config” is not working. It does not a matter.
Do not try unwanted/wrong commands in the consoles. They are not real switches.

QUESTION 23
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2. Which of the configuration is correct?
300-115 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
300-115 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Within any VTP, the VTP domain name must match. So, step one is to find the correct VTP name on the other switches. Logging in to SW1 and using the “show vtp status” command we see this:
300-115 dumps
So we know that the VTP domain must be CCNP. This leaves only choice D and E. We also see from the topology diagram that eth 0/0 of the new switch connects to a PC in VLNA 100, so we know that this port must be an access port in
VLAN 100, leaving only choice D as correct. Note that the VTP versions supported in this network are 1, 2, 3 so either VTP version 2 or 3 can be configured on the new switch.

QUESTION 24
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
Refer to the configuration. For which configured VLAN are untagged frames sent over trunk between SW1 and SW2?
A. VLAN1
B. VLAN 99
C. VLAN 999
D. VLAN 40
E. VLAN 50
F. VLAN 200
G. VLAN 300
300-115 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The native VLAN is used for untagged frames sent along a trunk. By issuing the “show interface trunk” command on SW1 and SW2 we see the native VLAN is 99.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps

QUESTION 25
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to the topology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?
A. Configure VLAN 500 & VLAN 600 on both SW1 & SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By issuing the “show vtp status command on SW2, SW2, and SW4 we see that both SW1 and SW2 are operating in VTP server mode, but SW4 is a client, so we will need to add both VLANs to SW1 and SW2.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
300-115 dumps
Examine the VTP configuration. You are required to configure private VLANs for a new server deployment connecting to the SW4 switch. Which of the following configuration steps will allow creating private VLANs?
A. Disable VTP pruning on SW1 only
B. Disable VTP pruning on SW2 only
C. Disable VTP pruning on SW4 only
D. Disable VTP pruning on SW2, SW4 and New_Switch
E. Disable VTP pruning on New_Switch and SW4 only.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To create private VLANs, you will need to only disable pruning on the switch that contains the private VLANs. In this case, only SW4 will connect to servers in a private VLAN.

QUESTION 27
Lab Simulation – MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram. You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping
the server S1. Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1. Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or create trunk links. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via EIGRP 65010 routing protocol. You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC. Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement this solution:
– 10.10.10.0/24
– 190.200.250.32/27
– 190.200.250.64/27
Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram. Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs, changes VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via the EIGRP routing protocol.
300-115 dumps
A. See the explanation
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:
+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be established between RouterC and SwitchC. + Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured as a Layer 3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires. The question clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing. We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig” command to get their default gateways.
C:\>ipconfig
We will get the default gateways as follows:
Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33
Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65
Now we have enough information to configure SwitchC (notice the EIGRP AS in this case is 650)
Note: VLAN2 and VLAN3 were created and gi0/10, gi0/11 interfaces were configured as access ports so we don’t need to configure them in this sim.
SwitchC# configure terminal
SwitchC(config)# int gi0/1
-> without using this command, the simulator does not let you assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface.
SwitchC(config-if)#no switchport
->RouterC has used IP 10.10.10.1 so this is the lowest usable IP address.
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# int vlan 2
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# int vlan 3
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)#exit
(Notice: MLS will not work without this command)
SwitchC(config)# ip routing
SwitchC(config)# router eigrp 650
SwitchC(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31
NOTE: THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the exam , also don’t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration. Also some reports said the “no auto-summary” command can’t be used in the
simulator, in fact it is not necessary because the network 190.200.0.0/16 is not used anywhere else in this topology.
In order to complete the lab , you should expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS , and from the PCs as well.
Also make sure you use the correct EIGRP AS number (in the configuration above it is 650 but it will change when you take the exam) but we are not allowed to access RouterC so the only way to find out the EIGRP AS is to look at the exhibit
above. If you use wrong AS number, no neighbor relationship is formed between RouterC and SwitchC.
In fact, we are pretty sure instead of using two commands “network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31” and “network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31” we can use one simple command “network 190.200.0.0” because it is the nature of distance vector routing
protocol like EIGRP: only major networks need to be advertised; even without “no auto-summary” command the network still works correctly. But in the exam the sim is just a flash based simulator so we should use two above commands, just
for sure. But after finishing the configuration, we can use “show run” command to verify, only the summarized network 190.200.0.0 is shown.

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] The Most Effective Cisco 300-101 Dumps CCDP Exam Vce Files Video Study Q1-Q34

What are the tools available for performing 300-101 dumps? Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE 300-101) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certifications. The CCDP exam 300-101 dumps actual test exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in de that use exam team Implementing Cisco IP Routing course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at exam testing center. The user must complete Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP prior to taking this 300-101 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 636

exam 300-101 Dumps Related Exams

  • 642-871 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
  • 642-873 Designing Cisco network Service Architectures (ARCH)
  • 642-874 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
  • 300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
  • 300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
  • 300-320 Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

exam 300-101 Dumps Related Certifications

  • Wireless LAN
  • WAASSE
  • Wireless BYOD Specialist
  • VPN and Security
  • Unified Communications
  • Substation Automation
  • TelePresence Video
  • Storage Networking

The Implementing Cisco IP Routing (300-101 ROUTE) version is a 2-hour test with 45-65 questions questions that validate professionals who have the expertise in using advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and highly secure Cisco routers that are connected to LANs, WANs, and IPv6.

exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Cisco 300-101 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-34)

QUESTION 1
Features of Netflow version 9? (choose two)
A. IEEE standard
B. IETF standard
C. ingress only
D. egress only
E. ingress/egress
300-101 exam Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
How route tags can be set?(choose two)
A. ONLY within route tags
B. within taglists
C. can be set with ONLY route-maps
D. can be set DIRECTLY within route maps.
E. only used on link state RPs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which condition can cause unicast reverse path forwarding to fail?
A. split horizon
B. STP convergence
C. PortFast security violation
D. asymmetric routing
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which set of actions does a network engineer perform to set the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server at the VLAN interface level?
A. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
B. Enter the global configuration mode and enable the IPv6 DHCP relay
C. Enter the global configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay from interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
D. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay, and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
which two types of authentication dose EIGRP offer ?(choose two)
A. TKIP
B. MD5
C. WPA
D. Plain text
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Refer to the following
Logging Console7
Which option is one of the effects entering this command on a Cisco IOS router, with no additional logging configuration?
A. Debug messages can be seen on the console by enabling “terminal monitor.”
B. Debug messages are logged only on active console connections.
C. A user that is connected via SSH sees level 7 messages
D. The router can experience high CPU utilization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? (Choose two)
A. summary-only
B. receive-only
C. external
D. summary
E. totally-stubby
F. not-so-stubby
300-101 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
After configuring the routes, the network engineer executes the show ip route command. What is the expected results?
A. Gateway of last resort is 10.0.2.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.2.0is directly connected, FastEthernetO/O 10.0.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/l S”0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.0.2.1(1/0] via 10.0.1.1 Router#
B. Gateway of last resort is 10 0.2 1 to network 0 0 00 10 0.0 0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet C 10.0.2 isdirectly connected, FastEthernetO/O S 0.0.0 0/0 [1/0] via 10.0.2.1
Router#
C. Gateway of last report is not set Router #
D. Gateway of test resort is 10.0.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted 1 subnet C 10.0.1.0 is directly connected FastEthernetO/1 S” 0.0.0?/0 [1/0] via 10.0.1.1 Router#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about NTP stratum are true? (Choose two )
A. Stratum 15 indicates a device that is not synchronized
B. Stratum 1 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source.
C. The highest stratum level a synchronized device can have is 16
D. Stratum 2 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source
E. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
F. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
300-101 exam Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
Which technology dose Easy virtual network use?
A. MP-BGP
B. DMVPN
C. MPLS
D. VRF-Lite
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about OSPF E1 routes are true? (Choose two)
A. They are preferred over interarea routes
B. They use the OSPF cost from redistribution and the OSPF cost to the ASBR
C. They are preferred over E2 routes
D. They use only the OSPF cost to the ASBR
E. They use only the OSPF cost from redistribution
300-101  dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
300-101 dumps
A senior network engineer tries to propagate a summary route 209.165.201.0/27 to R2 by redistributing static route on Rl, but setup is not working. What is the issue with the configuration in the exhibit.
A. The summary route is in the global routing table.
B. The wildcard bit in network command is incorrect.
C. The redistribute command is in the wrong address-family.
D. The route target is missing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which command denies the default route?
A. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/32
B. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/8
C. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0 0 0.0/0
D. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/16
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
300-101 dumps
Base on the output, which option is the next hop to get to the 130.0.1.0/24 network?
A. 10.30.30.1
B. 10.0.11.1
C. 10.20.20.1
D. 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which feature can mitigate fragmentation issues within network segments that are between GRE endpoints?
A. PMTU
B. ICMP DF bit
C. TCP Flow Control
D. TCP MSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
300-101 dumps
The excerpt was taken from the routing table of router SATX. Which option ensures that routes from 51.51.51.1 are preferred over routes from 52.52.52.2?
A. SATX(config-router)#distance 90 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
B. SATX(config-router)#distance 89.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
C. SATX(config-router)#distance 90.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
D. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 51.51.510.0.0.0
E. SATX(config-router)#distance 89 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
F. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Express Forwarding table or tables hold forwarding information?
A. FIB table only
B. adjacency tables only
C. FIB and adjacency tables only
D. FIB,RIB, and adjacency tables
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
router eigrp 65535
no auto-summary
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface loopback0
redistribute eigrp 65535
If this configuration is applied to a device that redistributes EIGRP routes into OSPF. Which two statements about the behavior of the device are true? (Choose two)
A. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as E2 OSPF routes
B. The device router ID is set to Loopback0 automatically
C. The device redistributes all EIGRP networks into OSPF
D. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as N2 OSPF routes
E. The device redistributes only classful EIGRP networks into OSPF.
F. EIGRP routes appears as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
300-101 dumps
A network engineer has configured NTP on a Cisco router, but the time on the router is still incorrect. What is the reason for this problem?
A. The router is not syncing with the peer, even though the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
B. The router is not syncing with peer, and the NTP request and response packets are not being exchanged.
C. The router is syncing with the peer, and the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
D. The router is dropping all NTP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two technologies can encapsulate an IPv6 payload in an IPv4 packet for transmission across a network? (Choose two)
A. L2TPv3
B. trunking
C. AToM
D. ISATAP
E. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the number 16 in the following command represent? Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 26
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about IPv6 EIGRP are true? (Choose Three)
A. EIGRP neighbor relationships are formed using the link-local address
B. EIGRP neighbor relationships can be formed only on the configured IPv6 address.
C. It supports ELM-64 addresses only.
D. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the interface configuration
E. An IPv6 EIGRP router ID is required.
F. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the ipv6 router eigrp configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split- horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router. What is the result of this command?
A. A routing loop is created.
B. Each of the spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised from the other spoke routers
C. The Spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised by the hub router
D. The hub router can see the routes that are advertised by the spoke routers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
300-101 dumps
All interfaces on each router are participating in the EIGRP 100 process. Interface Loopback 2 on HQR2 is currently in shutdown mode. An engineer issues the eigrp stub command on router BR1. Which statements about the query messages sent from router HQ-R2 for a route to reach the 12.12.12.12/32 network is true?
A. Router HQ-R2 sends a query message to the feasible successor for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
B. BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network
C. Router HQ-R1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
D. Router HQ-R1 and BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12/32 network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Drag and Drop
DMVPN
Select and Place:
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exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 210-065 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco IP Video Phone E20
C. Cisco TelePresence EX Series
D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500
210-065 exam Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is manually configuring a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which two pieces of information must the administrator introduce, in order for the system to properly register to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager or to a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server? (Choose two.)
A. the MAC address of the Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint
B. a SIP URI
C. the name of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server or Cisco VCS server
D. an IP address for the endpoint
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
In this item, you will need to use all information presented to you to successfully answer the question.
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 andgt; CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
A network engineer wants to check the local system call ID on a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System. Which CLI command should the engineer use?
A. show call statistics addin
B. show call statistics all

C. show call statistics audio
D. show call status
E. show call statistics video
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)
A. auto-attendant
B. ClearPath
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D. Cascading
E. Active presence for all devices
F. Support for Conductor
G. Native scheduling capabilities
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 7
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Content Server. Which two services are provided by this product? (Choose two.)
A. video storage
B. multiconferencing C. scheduler
D. video conferencing

E. video recording
F. video overlay
210-065 vce Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
A desktop video endpoint is needed that can support a PrecisionHD camera design and a built-in display, and is Bluetooth-ready and multisite-capable. Which desktop endpoint supports all of these requirements?
A. SX20
B. EX60
C. SX80
D. EX90
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which Cisco Prime Collaboration capabilities are shown?
A. Endpoint and system inventory reporting
B. Proactive monitoring and alerts for video endpoint faults
C. End-to-end network path troubleshooting
D. Real-time monitoring and alerts for video endpoint faults
E. Dashboard view of overall voice and video network health
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two codecs are supported on the Cisco Video Surveillance 6400E IP Camera? (Choose two.)
A. H.263
B. H.264
C. H.265
D. VP8
E. G.711
F. MP3

G. G.729
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
A video engineer has opened a ticket with Cisco TAC for support and the TAC engineer has requested system information such as software version of Cisco VCS. Where does the video engineer find this information?
A. System
B. Maintenance
C. Configuration
D. Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; Template
C. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; H.323 andgt; Template
D. Recording Alias andgt; Workflow andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which configuration element can be used to specify the Multiway address that can be used by the endpoint to initiate Multiway calls?
A. Conference 1
B. NetworkServices
C. Provisioning
D. SIP Profile 1
E. Video
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which statement is correct regarding the difference between Multisite and Multiway conferencing?
A. Multisite requires configuration on the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires the Multiway options key to be installed.
B. Multisite requires the presence of a multipoint control unit, whereas Multiway relies on the endpoint conferencing capability.
C. Multisite is used to conference in multiple sites, whereas Multiway is intrasite multipoint conferencing.
D. Multisite requires the Multisite options key to be installed and configured at the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server and a centralized multipoint control unit.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is the correct order of steps to schedule a One Button to Push conference call between a Cisco TelePresence System 500 and a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40?
A. Configure the One Button to Push field under device configuration for the Cisco TelePresence System 500 and Codec C40.
B. Configure One Button to Push under Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server andgt; Applications andgt; OBTP Configuration.
C. Configure a new conference under Cisco TelePresence Management Suite andgt; Booking New Conference andgt; Type.
D. The One Button to Push feature cannot be configured without a scheduling plug-in application such as Microsoft Outlook.
E. Configure the Scheduler tool in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your customer has an EX60 at a home-office that is doing direct H.323 dialing. When they place calls to remote sites, they report that they cannot see video or hear audio from the remote sites. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. NAT mode is not configured on the EX60.
B. The HDMI cable that connects the EX60 to the monitor is not plugged in.
C. A username and password must be configured on the EX60.
D. QoS is not properly configured on the EX60.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which video-room solution supports internal and external microphones for audio transmission at the same time?
A. MX300G2
B. SX80
C. SpeakerTrack60
D. C90
E. Jabber for Windows
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265

B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 23
A customer wants to purchase a video endpoint that supports a touchscreen control. The engineer recommends a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which information about this endpoint should the engineer tell the customer?
A. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You can purchase the 10- inch touchscreen with an additional cost.
B. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the 10-inch touchscreen.
C. You can purchase the endpoint with either the 8-inch touchscreen or the 10-inch touchscreen. You need an additional option key for the 10-inch touchscreen.
D. The endpoint comes with the 10-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the endpoint with the 8-inch touchscreen.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A user is unable to make a video call from an endpoint that is registered to the Cisco VCS. To isolate the cause, which two menu choices should the user check first? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration andgt; Call Policy
B. Status andgt; Registrations
C. Status andgt; Search History
D. Status andgt; System Information
E. Configuration andgt; Dial Plan andgt; Search Rules
F. Status andgt; Event Log
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 25
Which of these involves combining visual elements from separate sources into a single image?
A. interlacing
B. compositing

C. video conferencing
D. interleaving
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B

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exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 210-060 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password
B. IM andamp; Presence server is down
C. User is not associated with the device
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue
E. CSF Device is not registered
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user
210-060 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which component is needed for a voice call to be processed between the enterprise Cisco Unified Communications system and a cell phone via the PSTN?
A. Cisco Analog Voice Gateway VG224
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing node
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Music On Hold node
D. Cisco Integrated Service Router with digital signal processor resources
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
A. auto-reg-ephone
B. auto-reg-dn
C. max-ephones
D. max-dn
E. dn-webedit
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which four devices can be used to provide analog ports, traditional phones, and fax machines? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Foreign Exchange Station Voice Interface Card
C. Cisco High Density VoiceFax Network Module
D. Cisco ATA190 Analog Telephone Adapter
E. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Border Element
G. Foreign Exchange Office Voice Interface
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 7
Customer requirements dictate that local calls from area code 408 display the ANI as a 7-digit number. Which procedure allows the leading digits to be stripped as soon as they arrive at the H.323 voice gateway?
A. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
B. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the
dial peer in the outbound direction.
C. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the
dial peer in the outbound direction.
D. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the
dial peer in the inbound direction.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An administrator has determined that an end user is experiencing jitter. Which symptom is the end user experiencing?
A. choppy
B. crosstalk
C. static
D. screeching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway

B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which menu should be used to create a username and password in the Cisco Unified CME GUI?
A. configure andgt; pilot number
B. configure andgt; extension
C. configure andgt; phones
D. configure andgt; system parameters
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The receptionist has a Cisco 7965 phone with 24-button side-car configuration. The side-car button of the phone does not light up when the line is in use. Which phone configuration is missing?
A. Subscriber calling search space
B. Location
C. BLF audible alert setting
D. Phone button template
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers?
A. Alternate Extension

B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which configuration causes PSTN users to experience a fail tone for every other call when trying to reach a particular number on Cisco Unified CME?
A. ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
B. Duplicate ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
C. ephone is not registered.
D. ephone does not exist for the ephone-dn.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration andgt; Update System Info
B. Configure andgt; System Parameters
C. Configure andgt; Phones
D. Configure andgt; Extensions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
210-060 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Where can an engineer find how many unused Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Standard licenses remain?
A. CAR
B. Cisco Unified Reporting
C. Cisco Unified Communications Enterprise License Manager
D. RTMT
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which two profile types are needed to enable a user for IM and Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. voicemail profile
C. Jabber profile

D. device profile
E. network access profile
F. service profile
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
210-060 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile

E. device profile
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify

C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
210-060 vce Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB

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exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-355 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants to analyze the data rates that are available to a corporate laptop in its wireless deployment. The customer wants a heat map that displays actual data and shows the data rates that are available to the client in different areas of its facility. When using AirMagnet Survey PRO, which type of survey provides the actual data rates?
A. virtual
B. predictive
C. passive
D. active
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. A customer is using central web authentication with a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller and Cisco Identity Services Engine. An error occurs when wireless clients are redirected to the hosted splash page. What is causing the client error?
A. Secure Web Mode is disabled on the WLC.
B. OCSP is disabled on the WLC.
C. Management Via Dynamic Interface is disabled on the WLC.
D. Ethernet Multicast Forwarding is enabled on the WLC.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to manage the results of a report that had been run on network utilization?
A. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Device andgt; Utilization
B. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Scheduled Run Results
C. Reports andgt; Saved Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
D. Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
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200-355 pdf Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
200-355 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm

C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this: interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12

G. 18
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor

200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
200-355 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
200-355 dumps

200-355 dumps

 

QUESTION 20
Which two formats are available for Cisco WCS reports? (Choose two.)
A. PDF
B. CSV
C. HTML
D. TXT
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application

E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which option describes computer-to-computer wireless communication?
A. BSS and BSA
B. IBSS and ad hoc network
C. ad hoc network and BSA
D. IBSS and ESS
E. ESS and BSA
F. BSS and ad hoc network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A wireless engineer is designing the wireless networking for a company with offices in two different locations. Which two regulatory bodies should they check to find the maximum EIRP allowed? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ITU-R
D. ETSI
E. Wi-Fi Alliance
200-355 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
B. HTTPS
C. SNMPv3
D. Telnet
E. SNMPv2c
F. HTTP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are unable to connect to the network with their pre shared key. Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs andgt; WLAN_ID andgt; Advanced
B. Security andgt; Clients
C. Security andgt; Advanced andgt; Clients
D. Monitor andgt; Clients
E. Wireless andgt; 802.11b/g/n andgt; clients
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What authentication method requires a certificate on both the client and authentication server?
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-FAST
D. WPA-PSK
E. WEP
F. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is the function of the Cisco AnyConnect DART tool?
A. creates a compressed bundle of client logs and information
B. visualizes a WLAN environment, showing the possible locations of problems
C. gathers statistics from neighboring clients for comparison to the baseline
D. helps to troubleshoot a WLAN connection by using easy-to-use wizards and statistic viewers
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which protocol helps the administrator to determine whether a detected rogue AP is in the network of the organization?
A. RLDP

B. RCP
C. RDP
D. RAPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What three configuration options can be executed by navigating to the WCS Administration andgt; AAA menu? (Choose three.)
A. Add a Lobby Ambassador guest
B. Add a LDAP server
C. Add an administrative user
D. Add a MAC address list filter
E. Add a RADIUS server
F. Add a TACAS+ server
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 30
An engineer is seeing a pattern closest to that of an Isotropic Radiator. What other antenna will produce a similar pattern?
A. 5 dBi patch
B. 13.5 dBi Yagi
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 21 dBi parabolic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which device divides a signal between two antennas?
A. splitter
B. lightening arrestor
C. attenuator
D. amplifier
200-355 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
200-355 dumps

What is the meaning of the inverted orange triangle (marked andquot;0andquot;) in the Alarm Summary tab of Cisco WCS?
A. number of major alarms
B. number of minor alarms
C. number of critical alarms
D. number of system alarms
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
How many RADIUS servers can be configured globally and per WLAN on a Cisco WLC version 7.0?
A. 7 global; additional 1 per WLAN
B. 7 global; additional 3 per WLAN
C. 17 global; additional 1 per WLAN
D. 17 global; additional 3 per WLAN
E. 7 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN
F. 17 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN

G. 17 global; reuse of up to 3 maximum per WLAN
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 35
Which key combination provides a detailed wireless connection status for an Apple MacBook running 10.6?
A. Command + Click the SSID of the network
B. Alt + Click the SSID of the network
C. Command + the Airport icon
D. Option + the Airport icon
E. Ctrl + the Airport Icon
F. Option + Click the SSID of the network
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

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exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-360 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 34
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 35
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF
QUESTION 36
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Before upgrading Secure Platform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration. An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problems after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?
A. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).
B. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the Secure Platform boot menu.
C. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file.

D. A back up cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R76. To avoid problems, you decide to back up the Gateway. Which approach allows the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. snapshot
B. database revision
C. backup
D. upgrade export
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Your R76 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2008 Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A. 1. Create a database revision control backup using the Smart Dashboard
2. Create a compressed archive of the *FWDlR*\ conf and »FWDiR8\lib directories and copy them to another networked machine.
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot.
4. Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R70 CD.
5. Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to overwrite existing files.
B. 1. Download the latest upgrade export utility and run it from a c; \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Skip any upgarde__verification warnings since you are not upgrading
3. Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine
4. Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot
5. Use the R70 CD-ROM to select the uuarade import ootion to import the configuration
C. 1. Download the latest upqrade_expoct utility and run it from a \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Perform any requested upgcade_veriЈic«tion suggested steps
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
4. Use Smart Update to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot
5. Transfer the tgz file back to the local \temp
6. Run upgrade__import to import the configuration
D. 1. Insert the F70 CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration using the latest upgrade utilities
2. Perform any requested upgrade verification suggested steps and re-export the configuration if needed
3. Save the export ” tgz file to a local c: \temp directory
4. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
5. Install again using the R70 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot
6. Run upgrade import to import the configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
True or false? After creating a snapshot of a Windows 2003 SP2 Security Management Server, you can restore it on a Secure Platform R76 Security Management Server, except you must load interface information manually.
A. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.20.
B. False, you cannot run the Check Point snapshot utility on a Windows gateway.

C. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.10.
D. False, all configuration information conveys to the new system, including the interface configuration settings.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend before major changes, such as upgrades?
A. snapshot
B. upgrade export
C. backup
D. migrate export
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend every couple of months, depending on how frequently you make changes to the network or policy?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. upgrade export
D. snapshot
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a maintenance window?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. backup export
D. snapshot
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Snapshot is available on which Security Management Server and Security Gateway platforms?
A. Solaris
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. Windows XP Server
D. Secure Platform
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The file snapshot generates is very large, and can only be restored to:
A. The device that created it, after it has been upgraded

B. Individual members of a cluster configuration
C. Windows Server class systems
D. A device having exactly the same Operating System as the device that created the file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Restoring a snapshot-created file on one machine that was created on another requires which of the following to be the same on both machines?
A. Windows version, objects database, patch level, and interface configuration
B. Windows version, interface configuration, and patch level
C. State, Secure Platform version, and patch level
D. State, Secure Platform version, and objects database
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be retrieved from which source?
A. HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server
B. Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server
C. Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server
D. Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
When upgrading Check Point products in a distributed environment, in which order should you upgrade these components?
1 GUI Client
2 Security Management Server
3 Security Gateway
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 3, 1
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When using migrate to upgrade a Secure Management Server, which of the following is included in the migration?
A. Smart Event database
B. Smart Reporter database
C. classes. C file
D. System interface configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. When doing this, what is required of the two machines? They must both have the same:
A. Products installed.
B. Interfaces configured.
C. State.
D. Patch level.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Both machines must have the same number of interfaces installed and configured before migration can be attempted.
B. The new machine may not have more Check Point products installed than the original Security Management Server.
C. All product databases are included in the migration.
D. The Security Management Server on the new machine must be the same or greater than the version on the original machine.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure?
1) Export databases from source.
2) Connect target to network.
3) Prepare the source machine for export.
4) Import databases to target.
5) Install new version on target.
6) Test target deployment.
A. 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
C. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4
D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
During a Security Management Server migrate export, the system:
A. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Event database.
B. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Reporter database.
C. Creates a backup archive for all the Check Point configuration settings.
D. Saves all system settings and Check Point product configuration settings to a file.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
If no flags are defined during a back up on the Security Management Server, where does the system store the *.tgz file?
A. /var/opt/backups
B. /var/backups
C. /var/CPbackup/backups

D. /var/tmp/backups
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which is NOT a valid option when upgrading Cluster Deployments?
A. Full Connectivity Upgrade
B. Fast path Upgrade
C. Minimal Effort Upgrade
D. Zero Downtime
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
In a zero downtime firewall cluster environment what command do you run to avoid switching problems around the cluster.
A. cphaconf set mc_relod
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
In a “zero downtime” scenario, which command do you run manually after all cluster members are upgraded?
A. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set mc_relod
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which command provides cluster upgrade status?
A. cphaprob status
B. cphaprob ldstat
C. cphaprob fcustat
D. cphaprob tablestat
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R76. John knows that you can verify the upgrade process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool. When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he sees the warning message:
Title: Incompatible pattern.
What is happening?
A. R76 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before upgrade process to complete it successfully.
B. Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will be 
aborted.
C. Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational.
D. The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R76. If the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R76 Security Gateways.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a GAiA Gateway?
A. netstat rn > [filename].txt
B. ipconfig a > [filename].txt
C. ifconfig > [filename].txt
D. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

300-360 dumps

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