[100% Pass Exam Dumps] 100% Pass Rate Cisco 210-065 Dump CIVND Exam Test CCNA Collaboration Latest Video Study Free Download (Question 1 – Question 25)

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210-065 dumps

PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 210-065 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco IP Video Phone E20
C. Cisco TelePresence EX Series
D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500
210-065 exam Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is manually configuring a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which two pieces of information must the administrator introduce, in order for the system to properly register to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager or to a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server? (Choose two.)
A. the MAC address of the Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint
B. a SIP URI
C. the name of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server or Cisco VCS server
D. an IP address for the endpoint
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
In this item, you will need to use all information presented to you to successfully answer the question.
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
210-065 dumps
The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is unable to call the Cisco IP Video Phone. Assuming that the calling search space has been configured correctly, which of these can cause this issue?
A. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered to a Cisco Telepresence Video Communication Server.
B. A multipoint control unit is required in order for the call to work.
C. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 can only be registered as a SIP endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. H.323 is not supported.
D. URI dialing has not been configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
E. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 Profile 1 andgt; CallSetupMode must be configured as a gateway since Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not have a gatekeeper functionality.
F. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 is not registered as a SIP endpoint on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The Cisco Telepresence Codec C90 needs to be registered as both SIP and H.323.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
A network engineer wants to check the local system call ID on a Cisco TelePresence Immersive System. Which CLI command should the engineer use?
A. show call statistics addin
B. show call statistics all

C. show call statistics audio
D. show call status
E. show call statistics video
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two methods can you use to update the configuration automatically using the persistent configuration settings for an endpoint using TMS? (Choose two.)
A. Manually refresh the endpoint configuration for the Cisco TMS provisioning page.
B. Cisco TMS can be scheduled to push a template to endpoints.
C. User can edit the configuration manually for the endpoint from Cisco TMS.
D. The endpoint can receive the persistent settings from Cisco TMS after each reboot.
E. The endpoint can download the configuration via DHCP option 150.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)
A. auto-attendant
B. ClearPath
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D. Cascading
E. Active presence for all devices
F. Support for Conductor
G. Native scheduling capabilities
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 7
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Content Server. Which two services are provided by this product? (Choose two.)
A. video storage
B. multiconferencing C. scheduler
D. video conferencing

E. video recording
F. video overlay
210-065 vce Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
A desktop video endpoint is needed that can support a PrecisionHD camera design and a built-in display, and is Bluetooth-ready and multisite-capable. Which desktop endpoint supports all of these requirements?
A. SX20
B. EX60
C. SX80
D. EX90
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An engineer needs to connect an external display to a Cisco TelePresence MX700 endpoint. What must the engineer do to access the external monitor output connector?
A. Remove the cover under the main monitor. The cover is fastened with two screws.
B. Remove the cover on the back of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
C. Remove the cover on the right side of the system. The cover is fastened with four screws.
D. Remove the cover on the left side of the system. The cover is fastened with magnets.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which Cisco Prime Collaboration capabilities are shown?
A. Endpoint and system inventory reporting
B. Proactive monitoring and alerts for video endpoint faults
C. End-to-end network path troubleshooting
D. Real-time monitoring and alerts for video endpoint faults
E. Dashboard view of overall voice and video network health
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which two codecs are supported on the Cisco Video Surveillance 6400E IP Camera? (Choose two.)
A. H.263
B. H.264
C. H.265
D. VP8
E. G.711
F. MP3

G. G.729
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
A video engineer has opened a ticket with Cisco TAC for support and the TAC engineer has requested system information such as software version of Cisco VCS. Where does the video engineer find this information?
A. System
B. Maintenance
C. Configuration
D. Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How does a Cisco TCS process incoming video calls?
A. Recording Alias andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
B. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; Template
C. Recording Alias andgt; Media Server Configuration andgt; H.323 andgt; Template
D. Recording Alias andgt; Workflow andgt; Template andgt; Media Server Configuration
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which configuration element can be used to specify the Multiway address that can be used by the endpoint to initiate Multiway calls?
A. Conference 1
B. NetworkServices
C. Provisioning
D. SIP Profile 1
E. Video
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which statement is correct regarding the difference between Multisite and Multiway conferencing?
A. Multisite requires configuration on the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires the Multiway options key to be installed.
B. Multisite requires the presence of a multipoint control unit, whereas Multiway relies on the endpoint conferencing capability.
C. Multisite is used to conference in multiple sites, whereas Multiway is intrasite multipoint conferencing.
D. Multisite requires the Multisite options key to be installed and configured at the endpoint, whereas Multiway requires a Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server and a centralized multipoint control unit.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What is the correct order of steps to schedule a One Button to Push conference call between a Cisco TelePresence System 500 and a Cisco TelePresence Codec C40?
A. Configure the One Button to Push field under device configuration for the Cisco TelePresence System 500 and Codec C40.
B. Configure One Button to Push under Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server andgt; Applications andgt; OBTP Configuration.
C. Configure a new conference under Cisco TelePresence Management Suite andgt; Booking New Conference andgt; Type.
D. The One Button to Push feature cannot be configured without a scheduling plug-in application such as Microsoft Outlook.
E. Configure the Scheduler tool in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your customer has an EX60 at a home-office that is doing direct H.323 dialing. When they place calls to remote sites, they report that they cannot see video or hear audio from the remote sites. What is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. NAT mode is not configured on the EX60.
B. The HDMI cable that connects the EX60 to the monitor is not plugged in.
C. A username and password must be configured on the EX60.
D. QoS is not properly configured on the EX60.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Which tab can be used in order to check the call statistics for the Cisco TelePresence Codec C60?
A. Diagnostics
B. Configuration
C. Call Control
D. Maintenance
E. The GUI cannot be used to view call statistics.
210-065 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which video-room solution supports internal and external microphones for audio transmission at the same time?
A. MX300G2
B. SX80
C. SpeakerTrack60
D. C90
E. Jabber for Windows
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065 dumps
Acoustic measurements for ambient noise were taken on a candidate for an Immersive Cisco TelePresence room. The numbers on the floor plan represent the dBA readings for each of the six areas of the room. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the current acoustic situation in the room?
A. Only one area is within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only one area is not within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. Two areas are within the noise levels that are recommended by Cisco.
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265

B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 23
A customer wants to purchase a video endpoint that supports a touchscreen control. The engineer recommends a Cisco TelePresence MX300 endpoint. Which information about this endpoint should the engineer tell the customer?
A. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You can purchase the 10- inch touchscreen with an additional cost.
B. The endpoint comes with the 8-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the 10-inch touchscreen.
C. You can purchase the endpoint with either the 8-inch touchscreen or the 10-inch touchscreen. You need an additional option key for the 10-inch touchscreen.
D. The endpoint comes with the 10-inch touchscreen by default. You do not have the option to purchase the endpoint with the 8-inch touchscreen.
210-065 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
A user is unable to make a video call from an endpoint that is registered to the Cisco VCS. To isolate the cause, which two menu choices should the user check first? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration andgt; Call Policy
B. Status andgt; Registrations
C. Status andgt; Search History
D. Status andgt; System Information
E. Configuration andgt; Dial Plan andgt; Search Rules
F. Status andgt; Event Log
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 25
Which of these involves combining visual elements from separate sources into a single image?
A. interlacing
B. compositing

C. video conferencing
D. interleaving
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B

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PASS4ITSURE LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE CISCO 210-060 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(1-33)

QUESTION 1
Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

210-060 dumps

What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect username and password
B. IM andamp; Presence server is down
C. User is not associated with the device
D. IP or DNS name resolution issue
E. CSF Device is not registered
F. IP Phone DN not associated with the user
210-060 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
An entire department is reporting frequent calls with poor voice quality. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone

B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP Trunks
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which component is needed for a voice call to be processed between the enterprise Cisco Unified Communications system and a cell phone via the PSTN?
A. Cisco Analog Voice Gateway VG224
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing node
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Music On Hold node
D. Cisco Integrated Service Router with digital signal processor resources
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers?
A. partition
B. route group
C. route list
D. calling search space
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An administrator wants to add and configure an ephone-dn via the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express web GUI. Which feature must be defined under telephony service configuration?
A. auto-reg-ephone
B. auto-reg-dn
C. max-ephones
D. max-dn
E. dn-webedit
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which four devices can be used to provide analog ports, traditional phones, and fax machines? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Foreign Exchange Station Voice Interface Card
C. Cisco High Density VoiceFax Network Module
D. Cisco ATA190 Analog Telephone Adapter
E. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
F. Cisco Unified Border Element
G. Foreign Exchange Office Voice Interface
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 7
Customer requirements dictate that local calls from area code 408 display the ANI as a 7-digit number. Which procedure allows the leading digits to be stripped as soon as they arrive at the H.323 voice gateway?
A. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the dial peer in the inbound direction.
B. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the
dial peer in the outbound direction.
C. Set up a voice translation rule, apply the translation rule to a translation profile, and apply the translation profile to the
dial peer in the outbound direction.
D. Set up a voice translation profile, apply the translation profile to a translation rule, and apply the translation rule to the
dial peer in the inbound direction.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An administrator has determined that an end user is experiencing jitter. Which symptom is the end user experiencing?
A. choppy
B. crosstalk
C. static
D. screeching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway

B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which menu should be used to create a username and password in the Cisco Unified CME GUI?
A. configure andgt; pilot number
B. configure andgt; extension
C. configure andgt; phones
D. configure andgt; system parameters
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The receptionist has a Cisco 7965 phone with 24-button side-car configuration. The side-car button of the phone does not light up when the line is in use. Which phone configuration is missing?
A. Subscriber calling search space
B. Location
C. BLF audible alert setting
D. Phone button template
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers?
A. Alternate Extension

B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which configuration causes PSTN users to experience a fail tone for every other call when trying to reach a particular number on Cisco Unified CME?
A. ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
B. Duplicate ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
C. ephone is not registered.
D. ephone does not exist for the ephone-dn.
210-060 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration andgt; Update System Info
B. Configure andgt; System Parameters
C. Configure andgt; Phones
D. Configure andgt; Extensions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
210-060 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Where can an engineer find how many unused Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Standard licenses remain?
A. CAR
B. Cisco Unified Reporting
C. Cisco Unified Communications Enterprise License Manager
D. RTMT
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which two profile types are needed to enable a user for IM and Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. voicemail profile
C. Jabber profile

D. device profile
E. network access profile
F. service profile
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
210-060 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile

E. device profile
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify

C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
210-060 vce Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
210-060 exam Correct Answer: AB

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-355 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As(1-35)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants to analyze the data rates that are available to a corporate laptop in its wireless deployment. The customer wants a heat map that displays actual data and shows the data rates that are available to the client in different areas of its facility. When using AirMagnet Survey PRO, which type of survey provides the actual data rates?
A. virtual
B. predictive
C. passive
D. active
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. A customer is using central web authentication with a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller and Cisco Identity Services Engine. An error occurs when wireless clients are redirected to the hosted splash page. What is causing the client error?
A. Secure Web Mode is disabled on the WLC.
B. OCSP is disabled on the WLC.
C. Management Via Dynamic Interface is disabled on the WLC.
D. Ethernet Multicast Forwarding is enabled on the WLC.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to manage the results of a report that had been run on network utilization?
A. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Device andgt; Utilization
B. Reports andgt; Report Launch Pad andgt; Scheduled Run Results
C. Reports andgt; Saved Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
D. Reports andgt; Scheduled Run Results
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
200-355 dumps

200-355 pdf Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
200-355 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm

C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this: interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12

G. 18
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps

Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor

200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
200-355 exam Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
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200-355 dumps

 

QUESTION 20
Which two formats are available for Cisco WCS reports? (Choose two.)
A. PDF
B. CSV
C. HTML
D. TXT
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
An enterprise needs their iPhones to connect to the EAP-TLS network. How should the devices be configured?
A. push profile and certificate through Configuration Utility
B. configure directly through Settings application
C. email certificate to device then configure through Settings application
D. download certificate from web page then configure through Settings application

E. push profile and certificate through iTunes
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which option describes computer-to-computer wireless communication?
A. BSS and BSA
B. IBSS and ad hoc network
C. ad hoc network and BSA
D. IBSS and ESS
E. ESS and BSA
F. BSS and ad hoc network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A wireless engineer is designing the wireless networking for a company with offices in two different locations. Which two regulatory bodies should they check to find the maximum EIRP allowed? (Choose two.)
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ITU-R
D. ETSI
E. Wi-Fi Alliance
200-355 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible. Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
B. HTTPS
C. SNMPv3
D. Telnet
E. SNMPv2c
F. HTTP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
The wireless network is using controller-based APs and version 7.0 MR1. The APs appear to be connected properly to the controllers. A wireless user near one of the APs reports that they are unable to connect to the network with their pre shared key. Which option shows the GUI path where you can check the connection status of that client?
A. WLANs andgt; WLAN_ID andgt; Advanced
B. Security andgt; Clients
C. Security andgt; Advanced andgt; Clients
D. Monitor andgt; Clients
E. Wireless andgt; 802.11b/g/n andgt; clients
200-355 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
What authentication method requires a certificate on both the client and authentication server?
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-FAST
D. WPA-PSK
E. WEP
F. EAP-TTLS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
What is the function of the Cisco AnyConnect DART tool?
A. creates a compressed bundle of client logs and information
B. visualizes a WLAN environment, showing the possible locations of problems
C. gathers statistics from neighboring clients for comparison to the baseline
D. helps to troubleshoot a WLAN connection by using easy-to-use wizards and statistic viewers
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which protocol helps the administrator to determine whether a detected rogue AP is in the network of the organization?
A. RLDP

B. RCP
C. RDP
D. RAPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
What three configuration options can be executed by navigating to the WCS Administration andgt; AAA menu? (Choose three.)
A. Add a Lobby Ambassador guest
B. Add a LDAP server
C. Add an administrative user
D. Add a MAC address list filter
E. Add a RADIUS server
F. Add a TACAS+ server
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 30
An engineer is seeing a pattern closest to that of an Isotropic Radiator. What other antenna will produce a similar pattern?
A. 5 dBi patch
B. 13.5 dBi Yagi
C. 2.2 dBi omni
D. 21 dBi parabolic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which device divides a signal between two antennas?
A. splitter
B. lightening arrestor
C. attenuator
D. amplifier
200-355 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
What must be done for Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS to communicate?
A. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WLC must be configured in the Cisco WCS.
B. The IP address and subnet mask of the Cisco WCS must be configured in the Cisco WLC.
C. The identity certificate of the Cisco WLC must be added to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC and Cisco WCS must exchange identity certificates.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit.
200-355 dumps

What is the meaning of the inverted orange triangle (marked andquot;0andquot;) in the Alarm Summary tab of Cisco WCS?
A. number of major alarms
B. number of minor alarms
C. number of critical alarms
D. number of system alarms
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
How many RADIUS servers can be configured globally and per WLAN on a Cisco WLC version 7.0?
A. 7 global; additional 1 per WLAN
B. 7 global; additional 3 per WLAN
C. 17 global; additional 1 per WLAN
D. 17 global; additional 3 per WLAN
E. 7 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN
F. 17 global; reuse of up to 1 maximum per WLAN

G. 17 global; reuse of up to 3 maximum per WLAN
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 35
Which key combination provides a detailed wireless connection status for an Apple MacBook running 10.6?
A. Command + Click the SSID of the network
B. Alt + Click the SSID of the network
C. Command + the Airport icon
D. Option + the Airport icon
E. Ctrl + the Airport Icon
F. Option + Click the SSID of the network
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-360 Dumps Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 34
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 35
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF
QUESTION 36
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers. What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Before upgrading Secure Platform, you should create a backup. To save time, many administrators use the command backup. This creates a backup of the Check Point configuration as well as the system configuration. An administrator has installed the latest HFA on the system for fixing traffic problems after creating a backup file. There is a mistake in the very complex static routing configuration. The Check Point configuration has not been changed. Can the administrator use a restore to fix the errors in static routing?
A. The restore is not possible because the backup file does not have the same build number (version).
B. The restore is done by selecting Snapshot Management from the Secure Platform boot menu.
C. The restore can be done easily by the command restore and selecting the appropriate backup file.

D. A back up cannot be restored, because the binary files are missing.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R76. To avoid problems, you decide to back up the Gateway. Which approach allows the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?
A. snapshot
B. database revision
C. backup
D. upgrade export
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39
Your R76 enterprise Security Management Server is running abnormally on Windows 2008 Server. You decide to try reinstalling the Security Management Server, but you want to try keeping the critical Security Management Server configuration settings intact (i.e., all Security Policies, databases, SIC, licensing etc.) What is the BEST method to reinstall the Server and keep its critical configuration?
A. 1. Create a database revision control backup using the Smart Dashboard
2. Create a compressed archive of the *FWDlR*\ conf and »FWDiR8\lib directories and copy them to another networked machine.
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot.
4. Install again as a primary Security Management Server using the R70 CD.
5. Reboot and restore the two archived directories over the top of the new installation, choosing to overwrite existing files.
B. 1. Download the latest upgrade export utility and run it from a c; \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Skip any upgarde__verification warnings since you are not upgrading
3. Transfer the .tgz file to another networked machine
4. Download and run the cpclean utility and reboot
5. Use the R70 CD-ROM to select the uuarade import ootion to import the configuration
C. 1. Download the latest upqrade_expoct utility and run it from a \temp directory to export the configuration into a .tgz file
2. Perform any requested upgcade_veriЈic«tion suggested steps
3. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
4. Use Smart Update to reinstall the Security Management Server and reboot
5. Transfer the tgz file back to the local \temp
6. Run upgrade__import to import the configuration
D. 1. Insert the F70 CD-ROM, and select the option to export the configuration using the latest upgrade utilities
2. Perform any requested upgrade verification suggested steps and re-export the configuration if needed
3. Save the export ” tgz file to a local c: \temp directory
4. Uninstall all R70 packages via Add/Remove Programs and reboot
5. Install again using the R70 CD-ROM as a primary Security Management Server and reboot
6. Run upgrade import to import the configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
True or false? After creating a snapshot of a Windows 2003 SP2 Security Management Server, you can restore it on a Secure Platform R76 Security Management Server, except you must load interface information manually.
A. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.20.
B. False, you cannot run the Check Point snapshot utility on a Windows gateway.

C. True, but only when the snapshot file is restored to a Secure Platform system running R76.10.
D. False, all configuration information conveys to the new system, including the interface configuration settings.
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend before major changes, such as upgrades?
A. snapshot
B. upgrade export
C. backup
D. migrate export
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend every couple of months, depending on how frequently you make changes to the network or policy?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. upgrade export
D. snapshot
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a maintenance window?
A. backup
B. migrate export
C. backup export
D. snapshot
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
Snapshot is available on which Security Management Server and Security Gateway platforms?
A. Solaris
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. Windows XP Server
D. Secure Platform
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
The file snapshot generates is very large, and can only be restored to:
A. The device that created it, after it has been upgraded

B. Individual members of a cluster configuration
C. Windows Server class systems
D. A device having exactly the same Operating System as the device that created the file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Restoring a snapshot-created file on one machine that was created on another requires which of the following to be the same on both machines?
A. Windows version, objects database, patch level, and interface configuration
B. Windows version, interface configuration, and patch level
C. State, Secure Platform version, and patch level
D. State, Secure Platform version, and objects database
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
When restoring a Security Management Server from a backup file, the restore package can be retrieved from which source?
A. HTTP server, FTP server, or TFTP server
B. Disk, SCP server, or TFTP server
C. Local folder, TFTP server, or FTP server
D. Local folder, TFTP server, or Disk
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
When upgrading Check Point products in a distributed environment, in which order should you upgrade these components?
1 GUI Client
2 Security Management Server
3 Security Gateway
A. 3, 2, 1
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 3, 1, 2
D. 2, 3, 1
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
When using migrate to upgrade a Secure Management Server, which of the following is included in the migration?
A. Smart Event database
B. Smart Reporter database
C. classes. C file
D. System interface configuration
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. When doing this, what is required of the two machines? They must both have the same:
A. Products installed.
B. Interfaces configured.
C. State.
D. Patch level.
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A. Both machines must have the same number of interfaces installed and configured before migration can be attempted.
B. The new machine may not have more Check Point products installed than the original Security Management Server.
C. All product databases are included in the migration.
D. The Security Management Server on the new machine must be the same or greater than the version on the original machine.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
Typically, when you upgrade the Security Management Server, you install and configure a fresh R76 installation on a new computer and then migrate the database from the original machine. What is the correct order of the steps below to successfully complete this procedure?
1) Export databases from source.
2) Connect target to network.
3) Prepare the source machine for export.
4) Import databases to target.
5) Install new version on target.
6) Test target deployment.
A. 6, 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
B. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6
C. 5, 2, 6, 3, 1, 4
D. 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
During a Security Management Server migrate export, the system:
A. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Event database.
B. Creates a backup file that includes the Smart Reporter database.
C. Creates a backup archive for all the Check Point configuration settings.
D. Saves all system settings and Check Point product configuration settings to a file.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
If no flags are defined during a back up on the Security Management Server, where does the system store the *.tgz file?
A. /var/opt/backups
B. /var/backups
C. /var/CPbackup/backups

D. /var/tmp/backups
300-360 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Which is NOT a valid option when upgrading Cluster Deployments?
A. Full Connectivity Upgrade
B. Fast path Upgrade
C. Minimal Effort Upgrade
D. Zero Downtime
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
In a zero downtime firewall cluster environment what command do you run to avoid switching problems around the cluster.
A. cphaconf set mc_relod
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
300-360 vce 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
In a “zero downtime” scenario, which command do you run manually after all cluster members are upgraded?
A. cphaconf set_ccp broadcast
B. cphaconf set clear_subs
C. cphaconf set mc_relod
D. cphaconf set_ccp multicast
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
Which command provides cluster upgrade status?
A. cphaprob status
B. cphaprob ldstat
C. cphaprob fcustat
D. cphaprob tablestat
300-360 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
John is upgrading a cluster from NGX R65 to R76. John knows that you can verify the upgrade process using the pre-upgrade verifier tool. When John is running Pre-Upgrade Verification, he sees the warning message:
Title: Incompatible pattern.
What is happening?
A. R76 uses a new pattern matching engine. Incompatible patterns should be deleted before upgrade process to complete it successfully.
B. Pre-Upgrade Verification process detected a problem with actual configuration and upgrade will be 
aborted.
C. Pre-Upgrade Verification tool only shows that message but it is only informational.
D. The actual configuration contains user defined patterns in IPS that are not supported in R76. If the patterns are not fixed after upgrade, they will not be used with R76 Security Gateways.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
Which command would you use to save the interface information before upgrading a GAiA Gateway?
A. netstat rn > [filename].txt
B. ipconfig a > [filename].txt
C. ifconfig > [filename].txt
D. cp /etc/sysconfig/network.C [location]
300-360 dumps 
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 400-351
Exam Name: CCIE Wireless Written Exam
Q&As: 261

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QUESTION NO: 129
The Transtheoretical Model assumes that individuals
A. Move through the stages of behavioral change at a steady pace.
B. Only progress forward through the stages.

C. Move back and forth along the stage continuum.
D. Tend to use behavioral processes during the earlier stages of change.
400-351 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 130
If an individual is in the action stage, he or she
A. Intends to start exercising in the next 6 months.
B. Participates in some exercise, but does so irregularly.
C. Has been physically active on a regular basis for less than 6 months.
D. Has been physically active on a regular basis for more than 6 months.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 131
Which does NOT help to establish a supportive relationship?
A. Exhibit empathy.
B. Legitimize concerns.
C. Respect the person’s abilities and efforts.
D. Address the agenda.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 132
The five A’s of counseling are
A. Address, Assess, Act, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
B. Address, Assess,Advise, Assist, and Act.
C. Address, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
D. Act, Assess, Advise, Assist, and Arrange follow-up.
400-351 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 133

Which of the following would assist anxious people before an exercise test?
A. Ask them to sit quietly in a chair for a few minutes.
B. Thoroughly explain the exercise test.
C. Familiarize them with the exercise equipment by brief practice.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 134
Which of the following are NOT symptoms of depression?
A. Hearing voices.
B. Change in sleep patterns.
C. Irritability.
D. All of the above.
400-351 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 135
Which of the following are symptoms of anxiety?
A. Panic attacks.
B. Increased nervousness.
C. Feelings of being “on edge.”
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 136
A client’s health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial “walk-through” showing of a facility.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 137
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient’s understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 138
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determine whether to
conduct an assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 139
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L. Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 140
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions. What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
400-351 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 141
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client’s muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 142
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
400-351 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 143
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 144
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
400-351 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 145
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having “increased risk”?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 146
A client must be given specific instructions for the days preceding a fitness assessment. Which of the following is NOT a necessary instruction to a client for a fitness assessment?
A. Men and women should avoid liquids for 12 hours before the test.
B. Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol, tobacco products, or caffeine at least 3 hours before the test.
C. Clients should avoid strenuous exercise or physical activity on the day of the test.
D. Men and women should be instructed to get an adequate amount of sleep the night before the assessment.
400-351 exam Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-115
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Q&As: 437

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300-115 dumps

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QUESTION NO: 14
Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec
data directory option?
A. BEDB.DAT
B. BEDB.BAK
C. BEDB_DAT.MDF
D. BEDB_Log.LDF
300-115 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit
300-115 dumps
Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain
VLANs. What would cause this issue?
A. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.
B. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
C. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
D. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning increases network available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to reach the destination devices.
Without VTP pruning, a switch floods broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic across all trunk links within a VTP domain even though receiving switches
might discard them. VTP pruning is disabled by default. VTP pruning blocks unneeded flooded traffic to VLANs on trunk ports that are included in the pruning
eligible list. The best explanation for why switch C is not seeing traffic from only some of the VLANs, is that VTP pruning has been configured.
QUESTION 16
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate”
and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
300-115 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than
passively wait for the network to converge.
RSTP bridge port roles:
* Root port A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost
* Designated port A forwarding port for every LAN segment
* Alternate port A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is
a failure on the designated port for the segment.
* Backup port A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two
links to the same segment (collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to a hub.
QUESTION 17
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they
should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RSTP can only achieve rapid transition to the forwarding state on edge ports and on point-to- point links, not on trunk links. The link type is automatically derived
from the duplex mode of a port. A port that operates in full-duplex is assumed to be point-to-point, while a half-duplex port is considered as a shared port by
default. This automatic link type setting can be overridden by explicit configuration. In switched networks today, most links operate in full-duplex mode and are
treated as point-to-point links by RSTP. This makes them candidates for rapid transition to the forwarding state.
QUESTION 18
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
300-115 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to
only the switches that require it. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the
appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.
QUESTION 19
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table?
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
300-115 vce 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

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Exam Code: 200-105
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Updated: Sep 10, 2017
Q&As: 204

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Q&AS:
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)  Refer to the exhibit.

200-105 dumps

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in
VLAN 1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will
be the result of making this change on Sw11?
A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each
other.
B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.
C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to
communicate with each other.
D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.
200-105 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs are local to each switch’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between
switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all
VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured to carry only specified
VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So
Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to
VLAN 1.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)  What are two characteristics of a 200-105 dumps switch that is configured as a VTP client? (Choose two.)
A. If a switch that is configured to operate in client mode cannot access a VTP server, then
the switch reverts to transparent mode.
B. On switches that are configured to operate in client mode, VLANs can be created,
deleted, or renamed locally.
C. The local VLAN configuration is updated only when an update that has a higher
configuration revision number is received.
D. VTP advertisements are not forwarded to neighboring switches that are configured in
VTP transparent mode.
E. VTP client is the default VTP mode.
F. When switches in VTP client mode are rebooted, they send a VTP advertisement
request to the VTP servers.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)
Server Mode Once VTP is configured on a Cisco switch, the default mode used is Server
Mode. In any given VTP management domain, at least one switch must be in Server Mode.
When in Server Mode, a switch can be used to add, delete, and modify VLANs, and this
information will be passed to all other switches in the VTP management domain.  Client Mode When a switch is configured to use VTP Client Mode, it is simply the recipient of any VLANs added, deleted, or modified by a switch in Server Mode within the same management domain. A switch in VTP client mode cannot make any changes to VLAN information.
Transparent Mode A switch in VTP Transparent Mode will pass VTP updates received by
switches in Server Mode to other switches in the VTP management domain, but will not
actually process the contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added,
deleted, or modified on a switch running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that
particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management
domain.
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)  Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?
A. converged
B. redundant
C. provisioned
D. spanned
Answer: A
200-105 pdf Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and
switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is
converged, root bridge is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated)
in all switches are selected
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface
FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in
VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d
Spanning Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the
topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Explanation: These four parameters are examined in order to make root bridge , root port ,
designated port. Other switch has lowest Sending Bridge ID or Sending Port ID so vlan 2 is
not the root port.
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A
lower Sending Port ID
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.

200-105 dumps

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the 200-105 dumps topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on
Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: D,F
Explanation:

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) Refer to the exhibit200-105 dumps

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that
services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation:
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4
which is connected directly to the Printers.
Designated port is a port that is in the forwarding state. All ports of the root bridge are
designated ports.
Switch 3 and Switch 4 has same priority so it will see on lowest MAC address and here
switch 3 has lowest MAC address. So switch 3 segment will play a Designated port role.
By comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch
3 is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become
designated interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked.

Question No : 16.Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A.The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B.Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer’s hard
drive.
C.The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D.The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
200-105 pdf Answer:B
Question No : 17.When capturing a computer’s personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A..INI
B..A2I
C..ASI
D..PBT
Answer:B
Question No : 18 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the Deployment Server. Which statement is now true?
A.moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B.images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C.this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D.the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
200-105 vce Answer:B
Question No : 19 .Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A.ImgViewer
B.ImageExplorer
C.ImageEditor
D.ImageManager
E.ImgManager
Answer:B
Question No : 20.Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows 95
C.Windows NT
D.Windows XP
E.Windows 2003
F.Linux
G.Windows 98
200-105 exam Answer:A C D E
Question No : 21 .AClient has not been password protected. Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer? (Choose three.)
A.initiate Microsoft’s Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B.view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C.change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console

D.change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E.monitor AClient’s communication with the Deployment Server
F.reinstall AClient
G.edit the AClient template file
Answer:B C E
Question No : 22.Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A.SIDgenerator
B.SetupCapture
C.Sysprep
D.ImageExplorer
E.SIDconfig
Answer:C
Question No : 23.How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software 200-105 dumps virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A.layers can be imported to a managed computer
B.layers can be created
C.the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D.the content of a layer can be modified
Answer:A C
Question No : 24.Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A.%
B.#
C.$
D.*
Answer:A
Question No : 25.Deployment Solution’s Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A.Java
B.DirectX
C.ActiveX
D..NET framework
E.Pre-boot automation operating systems
F.SQL
Answer:D F

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-170 Dumps Exam Q&AS:

1.Model settings enabled in the Model Options dialog apply to Model settings enabled in the Model
Options dialog apply to
A. all models.
B. the current model only. C.
all models in the project. D.
archived models only.
300-170 exam 
Answer: B
2.Which of the following are ways of displaying the Palette? (Choose 2)
A. SelectTools ? Display Preferences
B. SelectTools ? Customize Toolbars
C. Right-click in the Toolbar area
D. SelectTools ? Model Options
Answer: B,C
3.When generating a diagram for an Impact and Lineage Analysis, what does PowerDesigner create?
A. New diagram in the same package of the same model
B. New diagram in a new package of the same model
C. New diagram in a new model
D. Visual display that cannot be saved
300-170 dumps 
Answer: C
4.A COPY of an object that is tied to its parent object is known as a .
A. Stereotype
B. Shortcut
C. Replica
D. Domain

Answer: C
5.Which of the following is FALSE about workspaces? (Choose 2)
A. Can hold a Repository
B. Can include external files
C. Can be saved locally
D. Multiple workspaces can be opened at the same time
300-170 pdf 
Answer: A,D
6.User Profiles can NOT create defaults for which of the following?
A. Database Generation Options
B. Display Preferences
C. Report Sections
D. Model Options
E. General Options
F. Repository Definitions
Answer: C
7.Which of the following are business rules types? (Choose 2)
A. Constraints
B. Annotation
C. Associative
D. Formula
300-170 vce 
Answer: A,D
8.Which of the following objects are NOT found in a Conceptual Data Model? (Choose 2)
A. Manyto many relationships
B. Relationship joins

C. Foreign identifiers
D. Domains
E. Primary identifiers
F. Data items
Answer: B,C
9.Which artifact can NOT be modeled in a Logical Data Model?
A. Entity
B. Attribute C.
Data item D.
Inheritance
300-170 exam 
Answer: C
10.Which of the following is FALSE about Model Generation?
A. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
B. New PDM can be generated directly from an existing CDM
C. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing database
D. New CDM can be generated directly from an existing PDM
Answer: C
11.What are the ways in which you can enforce referential integrity? (Choose 2)
A. Use a Primary Key Constraint
B. Use a Foreign Key Constraint
C. Use Application Code
D. Use a Domain
300-170 dumps 
Answer: B,C
12.A(n) relationship is a relationship between an entity and itself.

A. Replica B.
Reflexive C.
Mandatory
D. Associative
Answer: B
13.Which one of the following Inheritance Generation modes will cause attributes to be lost when
generating a Physical Data Model?
A. Generate parent
B. Generate children, Inherit only primary attributes
C. Generate children, Inherit all attributes
D. Generate parent and children, Inherit all attributes
300-170 pdf 
Answer: B
14.A primary key must meet the following conditions. (Choose 2)
A. Be unique
B. Contain coded information
C. Have a definite value
D. Be a surrogate key
E. Be clustered
F. Be accessible to the table creator
Answer: A,C
15.What are some of the characteristics of a Domain? (Choose 2)
A. Can be used to define a standard data type, data length, and data precision
B. Can be used to define standard attributes of an entity
C. Can only be used within a Conceptual Data Model

D. Can provide consistency across common attributes
E. Cannot be modified once associated to an attribute
300-170 vce Answer: A,D
16.In which PowerDesigner model are stored procedures supported?
A. Conceptual Data Model
B. Logical Data Model C.
Physical Data Model D.
Requirements Model
Answer: C
17.What statement is FALSE about triggers?
A. Implemented in a physical database as internally stored code
B. Can be used to improve performance
C. Automatically invoked based upon insert, update, or delete actions taken against a table
D. Initiated directly from an application program
300-170 exam Answer: D
18.Where do you define Trigger Template items? (Choose 2)
A. Model ? Triggers
B. Database ? Generate Database
C. Tools ? Model Options
D. Tables property sheet, Triggers tab
E. Database ? Edit Current DBMS
Answer: A,E
19.Physical Data Model macros can be embedded into and to
generate SQL statements. (Choose 2)
A. Template Items
B. Table via the Script tab
C. Business Rules
D. Procedures
E. View Queries
F. Extended Objects
300-170 dumps Answer: A,D
20.Which of the following are TRUE about a given report template? (Choose 2)
A. Can only be used for a specific model type
B. Can be saved within the model
C. Cannot be built for a multi-model report
D. Cannot be built from more than one section
Answer: A,D
21.Which of the following statements is correct regarding the differences between Service Oriented
Architecture (SOA) and Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is the next progression of a SOA. It allows applications to interact more easily.
B. SOA solves all the problems associated with EAI.
C. EAI solved many problems with integrating applications. SOA is the next evolutionary step.
D. SOA allows systems to be tightly coupled eliminating the loose coupling inherent with EAI.
300-170 pdf Answer: C
22.Which one of the following items is NOT a key aspect of a Service Oriented Architecture system.?
A. Tight coupling
B. Service Contract
C. Reusability
D. Statelessness
Answer: A
23.Second generation Web Services are characterised by which one of the following characteristics?
A. Support for WS-* extension (or WS-* stack) web services
B. Support for Service Oriented Layers built on first generation Web Services
C. Support for SOA built using first generation Web Services technology
D. None of the above
300-170 vce 
Answer: A
24.What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds
Correct Answer: C
24.
Given router interfaces 10.0.0.1/24, 10.10.10.10/24, 192.168.0.1/24, and 192.168.255.254/24 on a
Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the following command: config ospf routerid
automatic?
A. 10.0.0.1/24
B. 10.10.10.10/24
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. 192.168.255.254/24
Correct Answer: D
25.
Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address 192.168.0.1/16?
A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan
300-170 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
26.VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
27.
How do you disable Split Horizon?
A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise
300-170 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
Updated: Aug 15, 2017
Q&As: 118

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25. In an In-Front of the Switch configuration using Genesys Framework, .
A. the VCS receives all call routing information from the strategy
B. the DNIS must be delivered to the VCS with the call
C. a connection with the IVR Server is required
D. ANI is required to initiate or begin the call.
300-135 exam Answer: B
26. In a Behind the Switch configuration, the VCS carries out instructions from .
A. IVR Server only, in the form of IVR ServerXML
B. T-Server only, in the form of TLib Events
C. Web Server, in the form of VoiceXML
D. IVR Server client, in the form of XML
Answer: C
27. When you make a change to a parameter, such as PopGateway, Route1, Route Type – from InBound
to OutBound, what needs to happen for this change to go into effect?
A. restart WatchDog
B. no need to restart anything. New parameter value goes into effect immediately
C. restart the EMPS
D. restart MRCP Server
300-135 dumps Answer: A
28. To bring up the 9810 listener window in EMPS you need to expand Server, CORE, click on
<ServerName> and then follow which links?
A. Right-click on the Server and view
B. Click link for Network Management GUI to open the 9810 listener
C. Click the link for Server Explorer to open the 9810 listener
D. There are no available links for the 9810 listener window in the EMPS.
Answer: B
29. After WatchDog is started, GVP.ini file contains .
A. no configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes
B. application specific configuration information such as DNIS
C. the configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes, such as default log levels
D. only Dialogic configuration information
300-135 pdf Answer: C

30. When the parameter localconfig is set equal to 1 (localconfig = 1) in GVP.ini, the WatchDog service
will .
A. not read the local GVP.ini file, using the latest configuration contained in the LDAP database for the
VCS/IPCS parameter settings
B. read the local GVP.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
C. read the local watchdog.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
D. read the local EMPS.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
Answer: B

31.If a user is denied read permission on a folder, which of the following is true?
A. The folder is not visible in the Navigator window in any PowerCenter client.
B. The folder becomes a shared folder.
C. The folder has a red “X” over it.
D. The folder is grayed out in the Navigator window for any PowerCenter client.
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
32.Which is a type of connection object you can create with PowerCenter?
A. FTP
B. TCP/IP
C. Partitioned
D. Dynamic database
Correct Answer: A
33.What needs to be done to inherit domain privileges”
A. Use domain folders.
B. Use domain groups.
C. Set the privileges on a set-vice level.
D. Set the privileges on a service or group level.
300-135 exam Correct Answer: B
34.When copying a folder across repositories, which statement is true?
A. The origin repository is locked part of the time during the transfer.
B. The destination repository is locked part of the time during the transfer.
C. PowerCenter will automatically create and delete XML files to facilitate transferring the objects.
D. The origin folder must first be exported as XML.
Correct Answer: B
35.The Service Manager runs which functions on the Master Gateway Node in the domain?
A. Workflows, Configuration, and Alerting.
B. Security, Web Services, and Alerting.
C. Security, Configuration, and Alerting.
D. Web Services, Configuration, and Licensing.
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: D
36.If you attempt to delete a user who is the owner of a repository folder, what will happen?
A. The folder is deleted.
B. The folder becomes owned by Administrator.
C. You will be prompted to assign another owner to the folder.
D. This operation is not allowed.
Correct Answer: B
37.The IEEE 802.11 Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) service is capable of performing what
functions? (Choose 2)
A. Establishing an interference baseline on all 2.4 GHz channels
B. Using modulation switching techniques to avoid interfering with radar systems
C. Testing channels for radar before using a channel and while operating in a channel
D. Suspending operations on a channel with high IEEE 802.11 co-channel interference
E. Requesting and reporting of measurements in the current and other channels
300-135 pdf Answer: C,E
38.Which statements regarding an IEEE 802.11 Channel Switch Announcement frame are true?
(Choose 2)
A. Channel Switch Announcement frames use the Action frame body format.
B. Channel Switch Announcement frames are the only place where the Channel Switch
Announcement element is found.
C. Channel Switch Announcement frames are transmitted and retransmitted on a channel until all
associated STAs successfully move to the new channel.

D. Channel Switch Announcement elements may be carried in Beacon management frames.
E. In an infrastructure BSS, Channel Switch Announcement frames may be transmitted by either
the AP or an associated STA.
Answer: A,D
39.An HT STA does not receive an ACK for a first-attempt data frame that it transmitted. Assuming
this STA is not using BlockAcks in this case, what happens to the HT STA’s EDCA contention
window?
A. The slot time within the contention window decreases by 50%.
B. It varies because the backoff algorithm is random.
C. The contention window approximately doubles in size.
D. The contention window is not affected by failed Data frame delivery.
E. The contention window is immediately closed, and the frame is retransmitted.
300-135 vce Answer: C
40.What two IEEE 802.11 entities may be used to separate successful transmissions within an EDCA
TXOP? (Choose 2)
A. SIFS
B. AIFS
C. ACK
D. CAP
E. PIFS
F. EIFS
G. RIFS
Answer: A,G
41.Extreme Ware 7.0 can support which OSPF authentication on a per VLAN basis
A. MD5
B. Simple-password
C. Encrypted simple-password
D. All of these
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
42.How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
43.Although you can specify sequence numbers for different ACL entries, the Summit 1i switch checks
incoming traffic on a match with the ACL entries in the order of their time in configuration
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: B
44.What is the meaning of the IEEE 802.3 SNAP field in an Ethernet frame?
A. The SNAP field allows you to support Ethernet II frame, it contains the ether typevalue.
B. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate token-ring traffic
C. The SNAP field allows you to encapsulate FDDI traffic
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
45.DVMRP is similar to OSPF in that it is Link State based.
A. True
B. False
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
46.Traffic involved with Policy based QoS is handled by the switch its CPU.
A. true
B. False
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 300-208
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 269

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QUESTION 16
Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string?
A. NetFlow
B. DHCP
C. Network Scan
D. HTTP
300-208 exam
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
300-208 dumps

In a distributed deployment of Cisco ISE, which column in Figure 1 is used to fill in the Host Name field in
Figure 2 to collect captures on Cisco ISE while authenticating the specific endpoint?
A. Server
B. Network Device
C. Endpoint ID
D. Identity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 19
SIMULATION
The Secure-X company has recently successfully tested the 802.1X authentication deployment using the
Cisco Catalyst switch and the Cisco ISEv1.2 appliance. Currently, each employee desktop is connected to
an 802.1X enabled switch port and is able to use the Cisco AnyConnect NAM 802.1Xsupplicantlo log in
and connect to the network.
Currently, a new testing requirement is to add a network printer to the Fa0/19 switch port and have it
connect to the network. The network printer does not support 802.1X supplicant. The Fa0/19 switch port is
now configured to use 802.1X authentication only.
To support this network printer, the Fa0/19 switch port configuration needs to be edited to enable the
network printer to authenticate using its MAC address. The network printer should also be on VLAN 9.
Another network security engineer responsible for managing the Cisco ISE has already per-configured all
the requirements on the Cisco ISE, including adding the network printer MAC address to the Cisco ISE
endpoint database and etc…
Your task in the simulation is to access the Cisco Catalyst Switch console then use the CL1 to:

Enable only the Cisco Catalyst Switch Fa0/19 switch port to authenticate the network printer using its MAC
address and:
Ensure that MAC address authentication processing is not delayed until 802.1Xfails
Ensure that even if MAC address authentication passes, the switch will still perform 802.1X authentication
if requested by a 802.1X supplicant
Use the required show command to verify the MAC address authentication on the Fa0/19 is successful
The switch enable password is Cisco
For the purpose of the simulation, to test the network printer, assume the network printer will be unplugged
then plugged back into the Fa0/19 switch port after you have finished the required configurations on the
Fa0/19 switch port.
Note: For this simulation, you will not need and do not have access to the ISE GUI To access the switch
CL1, click the Switch icon in the topology diagram

300-208 dumps

QUESTION 20
What is another term for 802.11i wireless network security?
A. 802.1x
B. WEP
C. TKIP
D. WPA
E. WPA2
300-208 dumps
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
What is a feature of Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization?
A. Cisco WLC populates the ACLs to prevent repeat intruder attacks.
B. TheIPSautomaticallysendshunstoCiscoWLCforanactivehostblock.
C. Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization enables faster wireless access.
D. IPS synchronization uses network access points to provide reliable monitoring.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
What is the effect of the ip http secure-server command on a Cisco ISE?
A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line.
B. ItenablestheHTTPserverforuserstoconnectusingWeb-basedauthentication.
C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect using Web-based authentication.
D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line.
Correct Answer: C
300-208 exam
QUESTION 23
When RADIUS NAC and AAA 0verride are enabled for a WLC on a Cisco ISE, which two statements about
RADIUS NAC are true? (Choose two.)
A. It returns an access-accept and sends the redirection URL for all users.
B. It establishes secure connectivity between the RADIUS server and the Cisco ISE.
C. It allows the Cisco ISE to send a CoA request that indicates when the user is authenticated.
D. It is used for posture assessment, so the Cisco ISE changes the user profile based on posture result.
E. It allows multiple users to authenticate at the same time.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 24
Which two attributes must match between two Cisco ASA devices to properly enable high availability?
(Choose two.)
A. model, interface configuration, and RAM
B. major and minor software release
C. tcp dead-peer detection protocol
D. 802.1x authentication Identity
300-208 pdf
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 25
Which statement about I0S accounting is true?
A. A named list of AAA methods must be defined.
B. A named list of accounting methods must be defined.
C. Authorization mustbe configured before accounting.
D. A named list of tracking methods must be defined.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which two Identity store options allow you to authorize based on group membership? (Choose two).
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

B. RSA SecurID server
C. RADIUS
D. Active Directory
300-208 vce
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 27. Which application allows you to export a McDATA SAN Router configuration?
A. EFCM Basic
B. SANtegrity
C. SANavigator
D. EFCM
E. SANvergence Manager
Answer: E
QUESTION 28. Which method is best used to specify which servers can access specific LUNs?
A. HBA driver configuration
B. LUN masking in the switch
C. LUN mapping in the server
D. persistent binding in the server
E. LUN masking in the storage array
300-208 exam Answer: E
QUESTION 29. Which of the following is required to achieve 99.999% availability?
A. Dual rack installation
B. Separate power circuits
C. Router connectivity to DR site
D. Dual partitioned Intrepid 10000
Answer: B
QUESTION 30. A customer has significant power considerations. They want to purchase a switch from McDATA that
uses the least power while still maintaining power supply redundancy. Which switch is the best choice for
them?
A. Intrepid 10000
B. Intrepid 6140
C. Sphereon 3232

D. Sphereon 4300
E. Sphereon 4500
300-208 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION 31. Which two technologies provide Fibre Channel over IP services? (Choose two.)
A. SES
B. iFCP C.
FCIP D.
iSCSI E.
FICON
F. FC-SB2
Answer: BC

6. Click the Exhibit button.
Which technology is illustrated in the exhibit?

A. VPN
B. iFCP
C. FCIP
D. iSCSI
300-208 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION 32. On the McDATA Intrepid 10000, the upper two or the lower two optical paddles in a Line Module (LIM)
cannot both be in a supported configuration.
A. 2 Gbps

B. 4 Gbps
C. 8 Gbps
D. 10 Gbps
Answer: D

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