[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Best Microsoft 70-980 Dumps MCSE Exam Certification Try Free Youtube Online (Question 15 – Question 28)

Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure (Windows Server 70-980) is a qualifying exam for the Microsoft MCP, MCSE certifications. The Windows Server exam 70-980 dumps exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in looking to maintain their MCSE: Server Infrastructure certification. It is based on the exam objectives from Exam 413 and Exam 414 that use exam team Recertification for Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCP, MCSE prior to taking this course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

exam.com » Microsoft » MCSE » 70-980
Exam Code: 70-980
Exam Name: Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure
Updated: Apr 14, 2018
Q&As: 450

exam 70-980 Dumps Related Exams

  • 070-086 Implementing and Supporting Systems Management Server 2.0
  • 070-089 Planning, Deploying, and Managing Microsoft Systems Management Server 2003
  • 070-121 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions for Small and Medium Organizations
  • 070-122 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
  • 070-123 Planning, Implementing and Maintaining a Software Asset Management (SAM) Program
  • 070-210 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional
  • 070-214 Implementing and Administering Security in a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network
  • 070-215 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Server

exam 70-980 Dumps Related Certifications

  • Microsoft SQL Server 2008
  • Microsoft Specialist
  • Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
  • Microsoft Silverlight 4
  • MCSD
  • MCSA2003
  • MCSA
  • MCPD

The Recertification for MCSE: Server Infrastructure (70-980 Windows Server) version is a test with 450 questions that validate individuals looking to maintain their MCSE: Server Infrastructure certification. It is based on the exam objectives from Exam 413 and Exam 414.

exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Microsoft 70-980 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(15-28)

QUESTION 15
Your company has three offices. The offices are located in Seattle, London, and Tokyo. The network contains an Active Directory domain named northwindtraders.com. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. System Center 20l2 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. The servers in all three sites are monitored by using Operations Manager. The company has a web site for its customers. The web site requires users to signin. You need to recommend a solution to monitor the web site.
The solution must meet the following requirements: Monitor the availability of the web site from locations in North America, Europe, Asia, and Australia. Monitor multistep requests to the web site. Use a central console for monitoring. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Import the System Center Global Services Monitoring Management Pack and add the Web Application Availability Monitoring monitoring type.
B. Add the Web Application Transaction monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
C. Add the TCP Port monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
D. Import the System Center Global Services Monitor Management Pack and add the Visual Studio Web Test Monitoring monitoring type.
70-980 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to implement Microsoft System Center 20l2. You need to identity which soluti n automates the membership of security groups for contoso.com. The solution must use workflows that provide administrators with the ability to approve the addition of members to the security groups. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you identify?
A. Configuration Manager and Orchestrator
B. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. Orchestrator and Service Manager
D. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your network contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 20l2. The servers have the HyperV server role installed. You plan to deploy a management solution.You need to recommend which Microsoft System Center 20l2 roles must be deployed to meet the following requirements: An administrator must be notified when an incident occurs, such as a serious error in the event log, on a HyperV host, or on a virtual machine. An administrator must be able to assign an incident to a specific administrator for resolution. An incident that remains unresolved for more than 10 hours must be escalated automatically to another administrator. Administrators must be able to generate reports that contain the details of incidents and escalations. Which System Center 20l2 roles should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Operations Manager and Orchestrator
B. Operations Manager and Service Manager
C. Configuration Manager and Service Manager
D. Service Manager and Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company has a main office and a branch office. Each office contains several hundred computers that run Windows 20l2.You plan to deploy two Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) servers. The WSUS servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to implement the WSUS infrastructure to meet the following requirements: All updates must be approved from a server in the main office. All client computers must connect to a WSUS server in their local office. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Serverl.
B. On Server2, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
C. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Replica mode.
D. On Server2, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
E. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that has the update location set to Server2.
F. On Serverl, configure WSUS in Autonomous mode.
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.Your company works with a partner company that has an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com. Both forests contain domain controllers that run only Windows Server 20l2 R2.The certification authority (CA) infrastructure of both companies is configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to recommend a certificate solution that meets the following requirements:
Server authentication certificates issued from fabrikam.com must be trusted automati ally by the computers in contoso.com.
The computers in contoso.com must not trust automatically any other type of certificates issued from the CA hierarchy in fabrikam.com. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
B. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
C. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines an enterprise trust. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of CA Encryption Certificate.
D. Deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that defines intermediate CAs. Import a certificate that has an application policy object identifier (OID) of Microsoft Trust List Signing.
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.Your company has an enterprise root certification authority (CA) named CAl. You plan to deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to a server named Serverl.The company purchases a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.You plan to register the company’s SMTP domain for Office 365 and to configure single signon for all users. You need to identify which certificate or certificates are required for the planned deployment. Which certificate or certificates should you identify? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
B. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name Serverl
C. a server authentication certificate that is issued by a trusted thirdparty root CA and that contains the subject name Serverl
D. a server authentication certificate that is issued by CAl and that contains the subject name serverl.contoso.com
E. selfsigned server authentication certificates for serverl.contoso.com
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federati n servers. You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers. Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 20l0
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
70-980 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 22
Your network contains a HyperV host named Host1. Host1 hosts 25 virtual machines. All of the virtual machines are configured to start automatically when Hostl restarts. You discover that some of the virtual machines fail to start automatically when Host1 restarts and require an administrator to start them manually. You need to modify the settings of the virtual machines to ensure that they automatically restart when Host1 restarts. Which settings should you modify?
A. Maximum RAM
B. Minimum RAM
C. Memory weight
D. Startup RAM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) server named Serverl. You use Serverl to manage 20 HyperV hosts. The network also contains five Citrix XenServer virtualization hosts. You need to recommend which installation is required to manage the XenServer servers from Serverl. What should you recommend installing?
A. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on the Citrix XenServer hosts
B. The Citrix XenServer Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on Serverl
C. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on Serverl
D. Citrix Essentials for HyperV on the Citrix XenServer hosts
70-980 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to implement Network Load Balancing (NLB).
You need to identi y which network services and applications can be load balanced by using NLB.
Which services and applications should you identi y?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 20l2 Reporting Services
B. A failover cluster
C. A DHCP server
D. A Microsoft Exchange Server 20l0 Mailbox server
E. A file server
F. A Microsoft SharePoint Server 20l0 frontend Web server
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 25
You have a Windows Server 20l2 R2 failover cluster that contains four nodes. Each node has four network adapters. The network adapters on each node are configured as shown in the following table.
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NIC4 supports Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) and Receive Side Scaling (RSS). The cluster networks are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork4 is used for Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) redirected traffic. What should you do?
A. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 90,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
B. On each server, replace NIC4 with a 1Gbps network adapter.
C. Set the metric of ClusterNetwork4 to 30,000 and disable SMB Multichannel.
D. On each server, enable RDMA on NIC4.
70-980 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 20l2. Server1 has the Active Directory Certificate Services server role installed. Server1 is configured as an offline standalone root certification authority (CA). You install the Active Directory Certificate Services server role on Server2 and configure the server as an enterprise subordinate CA. You need to ensure that the certificate issued to Server2 is valid for 10 years.What should you do first?
A. Modify the subordinate CA certificate template.
B. Modify the registry on Server2.
C. Modify the registry on Server1.
D. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server2.
E. Modify the CAPolicy.inf file on Server1.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 200 servers that run either Windows Server 2012 R2, Windows Server 2012, or Windows Server 200S R2. The servers run the
following enterprise applications:
Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Microsoft SQL Server 20l4
System Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. Operations Manager monitors all of the servers in the domain. Audit Collection Services (ACS) is installed.You need to recommend a monitoring strategy for the domain that meets the following requirements:
A group of administrators must be notified when an error is written to the System log on the servers that run Exchange Server 2013.
A group of administrators must be notified when a specific event is written to The Application log on the servers that run SQL Server 20l4.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, enable audit collection.
B. From Operations Manager, implement two monitors.
C. From Computer Management, implement one event subscription.
D. From Operations Manager, implement two rules.
70-980 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Your network contains the following:
20 HyperV hosts
100 virtual machines
2,000 client computers
You need to recommend an update infrastructure design to meet the following requirements: Deploy updates to all of the virtual machines and the client computers from a single console. Generate reports that contain a list of the applied updates. What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and a second WSUS server that is integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
B. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
C. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, a second WSUS server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), and a third standalone WSUS server.
D. One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server integrated with Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager and Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
Correct Answer: D

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This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam 70-980 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Microsoft recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “Skills measured” section.

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[100% Pass Exam Dumps] Free Download Real Microsoft 70-744 Dumps MCSE Certification Try Free Youtube For Download (Question 14 – Question 24)

Securing Windows Server 2016 (Windows Server 70-744) is a qualifying exam for the Microsoft MCSE certifications. The Windows Server exam 70-744 dumps pdf exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) that use exam team Securing Windows Server 2016 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCSE prior to taking this 70-744 dumps course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 70-744
Exam Name: Securing Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 50

Related Exams

  • 070-086 Implementing and Supporting Systems Management Server 2.0
  • 070-089 Planning, Deploying, and Managing Microsoft Systems Management Server 2003
  • 070-121 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions for Small and Medium Organizations
  • 070-122 Designing and Providing Microsoft Volume Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
  • 070-123 Planning, Implementing and Maintaining a Software Asset Management (SAM) Program
  • 070-210 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Professional
  • 070-214 Implementing and Administering Security in a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network
  • 070-215 Installing, Configuring and Administering Microsoft Windows 2000 Server

Related Certifications

  • Microsoft SQL Server 2008
  • Microsoft Specialist
  • Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
  • Microsoft Silverlight 4
  • MCSD
  • MCSA2003
  • MCSA
  • MCPD

The Securing Windows Server 2016 (70-744 Windows Server) version is a test with 50 questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.

exam LATEST AND MOST ACCURATE Microsoft 70-744 DUMPS DUMPS EXAM Q&AS(14-24)

QUESTION 14
Note: Thi* question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. The forest contains 2#W client computers that run Windows 10. All client computers are deployed (rom a customized Windows image. You need to deploy 10 Pnvileged Access Workstations (PAWs). The solution must ensure that administrators can access several client applications used by all users. Solution: You deploy 10 physical computers and configure each wie as a virtualization host You deploy the operating system on each host by using the customized Windows image. On each host you create a guest virtual machine and configure the virtual machine as a PAW. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario b repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown m the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario
You need to disable SMB 1.0 on Server2. What should you do?
A. From File Server Resource Manager, create a classification rule.
B. From the properties of each network adapter on Server2. modify the bindings.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set -SmbClientConfiguration cmdlet.
D. From Server Manager, remove a Windows feature.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains five file servers that run Windows Server 2016. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Finance that contains all of the servers. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Finance OU. You need to ensure that when a user in the finance department deletes a file from a file server, the event is logged. The solution must log only users who have a manager attribute of Ben Smith. Which audit policy setting should you configure in the GPO?
A. File system in Global Object Access Auditing
B. Audit Detailed File Share
C. Audit Other Account Logon Events
D. Audit File System in Object Access
70-744 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Windows PowerShell is a task-based command-line shell and scripting language designed especially for system administration. Windows Defender comes with a number of different Defender-specific cmdlets that you can run through PowerShell to automate common tasks. Which Cmdlet would you run first if you wanted to perform an offline scan?
A. Start-MpWDOScan
B. Start-MpScan
C. Set-MpPreference -DisableRestorePoint $true
D. Set-MpPreference -DisablePrivacyMode $true
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.You are deploying Microsoft Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to the domain.You install the ATA Center on server named Server1 and the ATA Gateway on a server named Served.You need to ensure that Server2 can collect NTLM authentication events.What should you configure?
A. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 4776 to Server2
B. the domain controllers to forward Event ID 1000 to Server1
C. Server2 to forward Event ID 1026 to Server1
D. Server1 to forward Event ID 1000 to Server2
70-744 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Note: This question is part of a scries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains mulbple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network; to meet the following requirements:
*The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host.
*Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications.
*The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application.
Solution: You deploy a separate Windows container for each application. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contow.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), link it to the Operations Users OU, and modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
70-744 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The services on Server1 are shown in the following output.
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Sefver1 has the AppLocker rules configured as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)
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Rule1 and Rule2 are configured a$ shown in the following table
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No
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QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest has Microsoft Identity Manager (MIM) 2016 deployed. You implement Privileged Access Management (PAM). You need to request privileged access from a client computer in contoso.com by using PAM. How should you complete the Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 23
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com. Contoso.com contains a Hyper-V host named Server1. Server1 is a member of a group named HyperHosts. Adatum.com contains a server named Server2. Server1 and Server2 run Windows Server 2016. Contoso.com trusts adatum.com. You plan to deploy shielded virtual machines to Server1 and to configure Admin-trusted attestation on Server2. Which component should you install and which cmdlet should you run on Server2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 24
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
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All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. You have an organizational unit (OU) named Marketing that contains the computers in the marketing department. You have an OU named Finance that contains the computers in the finance department. You have an OU named AppServers that contains application servers.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to the Marketing OU. A GPO named GP2 is linked to the AppServers OU. You install Windows Defender on Nano1. End of repeated scenario You need to ensure that you can implement the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) (or the finance department computers. What should you do in the contoso.com forest? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Any exam.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of 70-744 dumps exam on exam.com for a full refund. We can accept and arrange a full refund requests only if your score report or any relevant filed be confirmed.

70-744 dumps exam

This preparation guide is subject to change at any time without prior notice and at the sole discretion of Microsoft. Microsoft exams might include adaptive testing technology and simulation items. Microsoft does not identify the format in which exams are presented. Please use this preparation guide to prepare for the exam 70-744 dumps exam, regardless of its format. To help you prepare for this exam, Microsoft recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the specified training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all topics listed in the “Skills measured” section.

I believe that people want to have good prospects of career whatever industry they work in. Of course, there is no exception in the competitive IT industry. IT Professionals working in the IT area also want to have good opportunities for promotion of job and salary. A lot of IT professional know that exam 70-744 dumps exam exam tests can help you meet these aspirations. exam is a website which help you successfully pass Microsoft 70-744 dumps.

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exam high success rate Microsoft 070-341 dumps Youtube study material Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. The Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 (070-341 Exchange) is a qualifying exam for the MCP, MCSE certifications. The Microsoft 070-341 dumps exam certifies the Microsoft Exchange Server knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified between the Exchange Recipient Administrator and the Exchange Server Administrator that use exam team Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 course. After taking this course, you will be prepared for certification exam, which is taken at local Pearson Vue or Thompson Prometrix testing center. The user must complete Microsoft MCP, MCSE prior to taking this course. Users will receive certificate of completion upon passing the course with an 80% or better.

Exam Code: 070-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Q&As: 220

Related Exams

070-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange
070-342 Advanced Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
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070-411 Administering Windows Server 2012
070-412 Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
70-285 Designing a Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 Organization
70-293 Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure
70-341 Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013

Related Certifications

Microsoft SQL Server 2008
Microsoft Specialist
Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013
Microsoft Silverlight 4
MCSDMCSA2003
MCSA
MCPD

The Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 (070-341 Exchange) version is a test with 204 questions that validate Candidates for this exam are senior administrators who act as the technical lead over a team of administrators. Some of the test data on the site is free, but more importantly is that it provides a realistic simulation exercises that can help you to pass the Microsoft https://www.exam.com/070-341.html dumps practice questions.

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Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 2)
You discover that one of the Client Access servers in the New York office does not trust the standalone CA. You need to ensure that all of the users who have Windows Phone devices can connect successfully to their mailbox. In which node should you install the root CA certificate? To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
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070-341 exam Answer:
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Question No : 19 – (Topic 3)
You need to recommend changes to the network to ensure that you can deploy the planned Exchange Server 2013 infrastructure. What should you recommend?
A. Transfer of the FSMO roles to a domain controller in the Chicago office.
B. Change the forest functional level.
C. Change the domain functional level.
D. Change the operating system on one of the domain controllers in the Chicago office
Answer: D
Explanation:
DIFFICULT QUESTION
FSMO ( Flexible Single Master Operations )
In a forest, there are five FSMO roles that are assigned to one or more domain controllers.
The five FSMO roles are:
Schema Master:
The schema master domain controller controls all updates and modifications to the schema. Once the Schema update is complete, it is replicated from the schema master to all other DCs in the directory. To update the schema of a forest, you must have access to the schema master. There can be only one schema master in the whole forest.
Domain naming master:
The domain naming master domain controller controls the addition or removal of domains in the forest. This DC is the only one that can add or remove a domain from the directory. It can also add or remove cross references to domains in external directories. There can be only one domain naming master in the whole forest.
Infrastructure Master:
When an object in one domain is referenced by another object in another domain, it represents the reference by the GUID, the SID (for references to security principals), and the DN of the object being referenced. The infrastructure FSMO role holder is the DC responsible for updating an object’s SID and distinguished name in a cross-domain object reference. At any one time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the infrastructure master in each domain.
Note: The Infrastructure Master (IM) role should be held by a domain controller that is not a Global Catalog server (GC). If the Infrastructure Master runs on a Global Catalog server it will stop updating object information because it does not contain any references to objects that it does not hold. This is because a Global Catalog server holds a partial replica of
every object in the forest. As a result, cross-domain object references in that domain will not be updated and a warning to that effect will be logged on that DC’s event log. If all the domain controllers in a domain also host the global catalog, all the domain controllers have the current data, and it is not important which domain controller holds the infrastructure master role.
Relative ID (RID) Master:
The RID master is responsible for processing RID pool requests from all domain controllers in a particular domain. When a DC creates a security principal object such as a user or group, it attaches a unique Security ID (SID) to the object. This SID consists of a domain SID (the same for all SIDs created in a domain), and a relative ID (RID) that is unique for each security principal SID created in a domain. Each DC in a domain is allocated a pool of RIDs that it is allowed to assign to the security principals it creates. When a DC’s allocated RID pool falls below a threshold, that DC issues a request for additional RIDs to the domain’s RID master. The domain RID master responds to the request by retrieving RIDs from the domain’s unallocated RID pool and assigns them to the pool of the requesting DC. At any one time, there can be only one domain controller acting as the RID master in the domain.
PDC Emulator:
The PDC emulator is necessary to synchronize time in an enterprise.
The PDC emulator of a domain is authoritative for the domain. The PDC emulator at the root of the forest becomes authoritative for the enterprise, and should be configured to gather the time from an external source.
All PDC FSMO role holders follow the hierarchy of domains in the selection of their in bound time partner.
NOT A
All of the FSMO roles are located on a domain controller in the Baltimore Office. All of the domain controllers are configured as a global catalog server
No need to transfer all of these roles to the chicago domain controller as the question suggests.
NOT B
Apparently no need to change the forest functional level Forest functional levels enable features across all the domains in your forest. The following table lists the forest functional levels and their corresponding supported domain controllers.
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NOT C
Apparently no need to change the domain functional level
For all domain controllers to function accordingly in the domain the domain functional level would have to be set to Windows Server 2003
All domain controllers in the Chicago office run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 1. (SP1)
All domain controllers in the Los Angeles office run Windows Server 2008 R2.
All domain controllers in the Baltimore office run Windows Server 2012
Domain functional levels
Domain functionality enables features that affect the entire domain and that domain only. The following table lists the domain functional levels and their corresponding supported domain controllers:
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D
Mixture of exchange 2007,2010 and 2013 environment
Exchange 2007/2010/2013 can operate in a Windows Server 2003/2008/2012 domain
functional level Exchange 2007/2010/2013 can operate in a Windows Server
2003/2008/2012 forest functional level However to operate appropriately the min spec for Exchange 2013 is for an AD environment of Server 2003 SP2
Currently all of the chicago domain controllers are 2003 SP1
Need to upgrade a chicago domain controller which will house Exchange 2013
Exchange 2013 System Requirements: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No : 20 HOTSPOT – (Topic 3)
You need to identify which names must be used as the URLs of each virtual directory on the planned Exchange Server 2013 servers. Which names should you identify? To answer, configure the appropriate name for each server in the answer area.
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Question No : 21 – (Topic 3)
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to deliver email messages to the Internet if CH-EX2 and CH-EX3 fail to connect to the Internet. The solution must ensure that all queued email is sent. Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the retry-queue ch-to-internet command.
B. Create a new Send connector on a server in the Baltimore office.
C. Modify the cost of the CH-to-Internet Send connector.
D. Run the set-sendconnector -identity ch-to-internet -frontendproxyenabled Strue command.
E. Disable the CH-to-Internet Send connector.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The Baltimore and Chicago offices have independent Internet connections. Internet connectivity for the Los Angeles office is provided through Chicago. Currently no mail servers in Chicago.Only in Baltimore and Los Angeles. Once the transition to Exchange Server 2013 in the Chicago office is complete, all mail flow to and from the Internet will be managed centrally through that office by using a Send connector that has the following configurations:
When you deploy Exchange 2013, outbound mail flow cannot occur until you configure a Send connector to route outbound mail to the Internet.
NOT A
Will not resolve the issue. Use the Retry-Queue cmdlet to force a connection attempt for a queue on a Mailbox server
or an Edge Transport server.
EXAMPLE 1
This example forces a connection attempt for all queues that meet the following criteria:
The queues are holding messages for the domain contoso.com.
The queues have a status of Retry.
The queues are located on the server on which the command is executed.
Retry-Queue -Filter {NextHopDomain -eq “contoso.com” -and Status -eq “Retry”}
NOT C
Modifying the cost will not fix the issue of CH-EX2 and CH-EX3 failing to connect to the Internet.
Cost is used to set the priority of this connector, used when two or more connectors are configured for the same address space. The lower the cost higher the priority.
NOT D
Modifying the send connector will not fix the internet connection from chicago mail server to the internet.
Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
EXAMPLE 1
This example makes the following configuration changes to the Send connector named
Contoso.com Send Connector:
Sets the maximum message size limit to 10 MB.
Changes the connection inactivity time-out to 15 minutes.
Set-SendConnector “Contoso.com Send Connector” -MaxMessageSize 10MB – ConnectionInactivityTimeOut 00:15:00
The FrontendProxyEnabled parameter routes outbound messages through the CAS server, where destination specific routing, such as DNS or IP address, is set, when the parameter is set to $true.
E
Need to disable the send connector from Chicago to the internet so that when a new send connector on the Baltimore server is created, email can be sent to the internet. Send Connectors: Exchange 2013 Help

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QUESTION 1
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. a storage pool on Disk 2 and Disk 3
B. a spanned volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 3
D. a mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
E. a RAID-5 volume on Disk 1, Disk 2, and Disk 3
F. a storage pool on Disk 1 and Disk 3
G. a spanned volume on Disk 0 and Disk 4
H. a mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server contains the disks configured as shown in the following table.
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You need to create a volume that can store up to 3 TB of user files. The solution must ensure that the user files are available if one of the disks in the volume fails. What should you create?
A. A mirrored volume on Disk 1 and Disk 4
B. A storage pool on Disk 2 and Disk 3
C. A storage pool on Disk 1 and Disk 3
D. A mirrored volume on Disk 2 and Disk 3
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Served, and Server3. You create a server group named ServerGroup1. You discover the error message shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely by using Server Manager. What should you do?
A. On DC1, run the Enable-PSSessionConfiguration cmdlet.
B. On Server2, run the Add-Computer cmdlet.
C. On Server2/ modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, add a computer account named Server2, and then restart Server2.
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. An iSCSI SAN is available on the network. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. You create a LUN on the SAN. You need to provide VM1 with access to the LUN. The solution must prevent other virtual machines from accessing the LUN. What should you configure?
A. A fixed-size VHDX
B. A fixed-size VHD
C. A dynamically expanding VHD
D. A dynamically expanding VHDX
E. A pass-through disk
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a print server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a local group named Group1. You share a printer named Printer1 on Server1. You need to configure Printer1 to meet the following requirements: Ensure that the members of Group1, the Server Operators group, the Administrators group, and the Print Operators group can send print jobs to Printer1. Prevent other users from sending print jobs to Printer1. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Assign the Print permission to the Server Operators group
B. Remove the permissions for the Creator Owner group.
C. Remove the permissions for the Everyone group.
D. Assign the Print permission to Group1.
E. Assign the Print permission to the Administrators group.
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Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6
You have a new server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has two dual- core processors and 32 GB of RAM. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server1. You create two virtual machines on Server1 that each have 8 GB of memory. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for both virtual machines to access memory.What should you configure on each virtual machine?
A. Resource control
B. Dynamic Memory

C. NUMA topology
D. Memory weight
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1. You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. the dism.exe command
B. the Add-WindowsFeature cmdlet
C. the imagex.exe command
D. the setup.exe command
E. the ocsetup.exe command
F. the Add-WindowsPackage cmdlet
G. the Install-Module cmdlet
H. the Install-RoleService cmdlet
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Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. You need to configure storage for a virtual machine to meet the following requirements:
– Support up to 3 TB of data on a single hard disk.
– Allocate disk space as needed.
– Use a portable storage format.
What should you configure?
A. A pass-through disk
B. A fixed-size VHD
C. A dynamically expanding VHD
D. A fixed-size VHDX
E. A dynamically expanding VHDX
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9
You have a virtual machine named VM1. You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM1. You plan to use VM1 as an image that will be distributed to sales users to demonstrate the features of a custom application. The custom application only requires the Web Server (IIS) server role to be installed. You need to ensure that the VHD file for VM1 only contains the required Windows Server 2012 R2 source files. Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. ocsetup.exe
C. imagex.exe
D. servermanagercmd.exe
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All user accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named Employees. You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1. You link GP1 to the Employees OU. You need to ensure that GP1 does not apply to the members of a group named Managers. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of Employees
B. The WMI filter for GP1
C. The Block Inheritance option for Employees
D. The Security settings of GP1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Hyper-V server role installed. On Server1, you create and start a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 is configured as shown in the following table.
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You plan to create a snapshot of VM1. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of disk space used for the snapshot of VM1. What should you do before you create the snapshot?
A. Run the Stop-VM cmdlet.
B. Run the Convert-VHD cmdlet.
C. Decrease the Maximum RAM
D. Decrease the Minimum RAM.
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 contains a shared folder named Share1. Share1 contains the home folder of each user. All users have the necessary permissions to access only their home folder. The users report that when they access Share1, they can see the home folders of all the users. You need to ensure that the users see only their home folder when they access Share1. What should you do from Server1?
A. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of the volume that contains Share1.
B. From Server Manager, modify the properties of the volume that contains Share1.
C. From Server Manager, modify the properties of Share1.
D. From Windows Explorer, modify the properties of Share1.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
In an isolated test environment, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. The test environment does not have Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) installed. You install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server1. You need to configure Server1 as a domain controller. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Install-ADDSDomainController
B. Install-ADDSDomatn
C. Install-ADDSForest
D. Install-WindowsFeature
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an organizational unit (OU) named 0U1. You need to ensure that when new client computers join the domain, their computer accounts are created in OU1 by default. What should you do?
A. From a command prompt, run the redircmp.exe command.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Move-ADObject cmdlet.
C. From Ldp, configure the properties of the Computers container.
D. From ADSI Edit, configure the properties of the OU1 object.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a user account named User1 that resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. GPO1 is used to publish several applications to a user named User1. In the Users container, you create a new user named User2. You need to ensure that the same applications are published to User2. What should you do?
A. Modify the security of GPO1.
B. Modify the settings in GPO1.
C. Link a WMI filter to GPO1.
D. Move User2 to OU1.
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. L2P.com has a server, named L2P-SR07, which has the AD DS, DHCP, and DNS server roles installed. L2P.com also has a server, named L2P-SR08, which has the DHCP, and Remote Access server roles installed. You have configured a server, which has the File and Storage Services server role installed, to automatically acquire an IP address. The server is named L2PSR09. You then create a filter on L2P-SR07. Which of the following is a reason for this configuration?
A. To make sure that L2P-SR07 issues L2P-SR09 an IP address.
B. To make sure that L2P-SR07 does not issue L2P-SR09 an IP address.
C. To make sure that L2P-SR09 acquires a constant IP address from L2P-SR08 only.
D. To make sure that L2P-SR09 is configured with a static IP address.
Correct Answer: B
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Question No : 22  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several international formats. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question No : 23
You are a database developer of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You are designing a table that will store Customer data from different sources. The table will include a column that contains the CustomerID from the source system and a column that contains the SourceID.
A sample of this data is as shown in the following table.

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You need to ensure that the table has no duplicate CustomerID within a SourceID. You also need to ensure that the data in the table is in the order of SourceID and then CustomerID.Which Transact- SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerID int NOT NULL IDENTITY,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
CustomerID int NOT NULL UNIQUE,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL);
D. CREATE TABLE Customer
(SourceID int NOT NULL,
CustomerID int NOT NULL,
CustomerName varchar(255) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Customer PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED

(SourceID, CustomerID));
070-461 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 24  You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to look up telephone numbers for these companies. The view has the following definition:
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You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this view. What should you do?
A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Answer: D
Question No : 25 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Employee and Person. The tables have the following definitions:
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Users are able to use single INSERT statements or INSERT…SELECT statements into this view. You need to ensure that users are able to use a single statement to insert records into both Employee and Person tables by using the VwEmployee view. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName, FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonId, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM inserted
END
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE @ID INT, @FirstName NVARCHAR(25), @LastName NVARCHAR(25),
@PersonID
INT, @EmployeeNumber NVARCHAR(15)
SELECT @ID = ID, @FirstName = FirstName, @LastName = LastName,
@EmployeeNumber
= EmployeeNumber
FROM inserted
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
VALUES(@ID, @FirstName, @LastName)
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
VALUES(@PersonID, @EmployeeNumber
End
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgVwEmployee
ON VwEmployee
INSTEAD OF INSERT

AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Person(Id, FirstName, LastName)
SELECT Id, FirstName, LastName FROM VwEmployee
INSERT INTO Employee(PersonID, EmployeeNumber)
SELECT Id, EmployeeNumber FROM VwEmployee
End
070-461 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 26  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. The Products table has the following definition:
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You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice)
– – Create Audit Records
Answer: D
Question No : 27  A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
070-461 vce Answer: C

 

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QUESTION 1
A BizTalk Server 2010 messaging solution processes XML messages. The solution uses a single Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) activity and BAM tracking profile to extract content values from the message. Some of the values are bound to a receive port when the message is received. The other values are bound to a send port when the message is transmitted. At run time you find out that instead of one, two records are created in the BAM database for each processed message. One record contains only the values bound to the receive port. The second record contains only the values bound to the send port. You need to ensure that only one record is created that contains all the values for every message. What should you do?
A. Add a continuation and continuation ID to the tracking profile.
B. In the tracking profile, associate a unique value from the message payload to the ActivityID field.
C. Add a relationship to the tracking profile.
D. Add a document reference URL to the tracking profile.
70-595 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
You are developing a BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration. In the Business Rule Composer, you create and save a policy named BonusPolicy that calculates an employees bonus based on year- to-date sales. You add a Call Rules shape to the orchestration. In the BizTalk Orchestration Designer, BonusPolicy is not listed in the menu of available policies to call. You need to make the policy available in the Orchestration Designer. What should you do?
A. Use the Rule Engine Deployment Wizard to export BonusPolicy.
B. In the Business Rules Composer, publish BonusPolicy.
C. In the Business Rules Composer, create a vocabulary with a definition that references the XML
schema used to evaluate BonusPolicy. Publish the vocabulary.
D. In the Business Rules Composer, use the Rule Store menu and load policies from the
BizTalkRuleEngineDb database.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A company tracks storage containers and integrates radio frequency identification (RFID) readers with a server shipping management system built on BizTalk Server 2010. You define a custom tag event named ContainerArrivedEvent. You use the RFID manager to add the SqlServerSink component to the RFID process. You need to ensure that the SqlServerSink component logs only the custom tag event. What should you specify for the EventTypes property?
A. ContainerArrivedEvent
B. the fully qualified assembly name
C. All
D. Generic
70-595 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
You use BizTalk Server 2010 to send EDI purchase orders to three trading partners. All of the trading partners use the same version of the purchase order message but define custom codes for the product types. The trading partners confirm purchase order acknowledgements by email instead of through response messages. The standard purchase order schemas included with BizTalk do not include the custom product type codes for each trading partner. You need to ensure that each trading partners purchase order schema is the schema that is used for orders that are sent to them. What should you do?
A. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
B. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For
  the namespace, use the custom namespace you defined for each BizTalk schema.
C. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define an envelope for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
D. Under the transaction set settings for the party, define a local host setting for each trading partner. For the namespace, use the default namespace defined by BizTalk for EDI messages.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
A BizTalk Server 2010 orchestration calls a Business Rules Engine policy. This policy evaluates test scores to determine whether a candidate passes or fails. The BizTalk solution and the policy are deployed. Business users have decided that the value of a passing score should be raised from 60% to 70%. You need to adjust the policy to reflect the modified rule parameter. What should you do?
A. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then deploy the new version.
B. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer. Create a new version of the policy and edit this version to reflect the changed parameter. Then publish the new version.
C. Create a new vocabulary in the Business Rules Composer. Add the new parameter to this vocabulary and then publish the vocabulary.
D. Open the policy in the Business Rules Composer and create a different policy with a new name. Then copy the currently deployed version to the new policy and modify to reflect the changed parameter. Deploy the new policy.
70-595 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A BizTalk Server 2010 solution uses Business Activity Monitoring (BAM) to collect business information. The solution contains a BAM view named OrderView. After you deploy the view, application users can log on to the BAM portal but the OrderView view does not appear to them. You need to ensure that the BAM portal displays the OrderView view to application users. What should you do?
A. Use the BizTalk Tracking Profile Utility (bttdeploy.exe) to redeploy the tracking profile used in this solution.
B. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to add a subscription for the OrderView view.
C. Create a Microsoft SQL Server logins for the users on the server that hosts the BAMPrimaryImport database.
D. Use the Business Activity Monitoring Utility (bm.exe) to grant the users access to the OrderView view.
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 249

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QUESTION 45
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the
application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a
business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the
changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
70-534 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20
GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development
techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM)
instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team
members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
70-534 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic
locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After performing a global gap analysis, the global HR team has identified an initiative to identify at
least three potential candidates for each Senior Director and VP position. In order to build
accountability for implementing this initiative, which of the following pieces of information is NOT
necessary?
A. Source of resources
B. Modes of communication
C. Benefit to the individual and organization
D. Developing S.M.A.R.T objectives
70-534 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following type of listening is occurring when a person is thinking. “Robert has some
legitimate points about the importance of quality and its importance in the company’s growth” while
listening to a ISO-9001 training session?

A. Active
B. Empathic
C. Informational
D. Evaluative
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following is NOT a potential difference in benefits practices that Human Resources
should evaluate when developing a global compensation and benefits strategy?
A. Leaves of absences
B. Life insurance benefits
C. Medical coverage
D. Reasons for termination
70-534 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
A gap analysis is performed to measure the skill gap between current executives and the type of
executives in order to have a truly global workforce. Which of the following analysis techniques
does this measure utilize?
A. Ratio analysis
B. Criterion-referenced analysis
C. Trend analysis
D. Norm-referenced analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
According to Claus, which of the following HR activities is considered an upstream function?
A. Compensation
B. Employee relations
C. HRIS
D. Staffing
70-534 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
Which of the following represents a HR strategic activity?
A. Recruitment of staff for new R&D project
B. Implement annual performance appraisal programs
C. Designing an employment brand
D. Provide specific job training programs
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following is NOT a potential reason for a company’s decision to fill a position through
an international assignment?
A. Assist in creating alignment with headquarters’ goals and objectives
B. Assist in developing a consistent culture across the corporation
C. Specific person is the most qualified candidate for the job
D. Lack of core skill sets for the position available in the area
70-534 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 56
In the European Union, many multinational companies have Work Councils that are created to
protect workers interests. A company with 50 employees working across the EU has decided to
create a Work Councils Recently, a court has fined the corporation for laying off 10% of the
employee population in one of its E.U sites without discussing it with its Work Councils. Which of
the following reasons represents the PRIMARY rationale for why this occurred?
A. The company did not follow the collective bargaining agreement
B. The company did not follow the voluntarily-provided program
C. The company did not follow the government-provided program
D. The company did not follow the government-mandated program
Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
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Question No : 41 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Your company uses Office 365 for collaboration. You must reset the password for all of the employees in your company.
You need to ensure that all employees create a new password the next time they sign in to
Office 365. How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag
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Question No : 42  You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use
a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D
Question No : 43 DRAG DROP You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has two administrators named User1 and User2. Users must be able to perform the activities as shown in the following table:
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Question No : 44 DRAG DROP  A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 45
A test case tested data values at 0, 9, 10, 11, 49, 50, 51, 100. Which black-box technique was most likely
used to generate these data points.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Analysis
C. Equivalence Partitioning
D. Data Sampling
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
In the broad context of comparing quality assurance activities and quality control activities in an IT
organization, which of the following would be considered a quality assurance activity?
A. Developing Test Plans
B. Conducting Design Inspections
C. Developing Test Processes
D. Performing Acceptance Testing
E. Performing Regression Testing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
Which category of control methods is the most acceptable to the individual?
A. Automatic
B. Auditors
C. Peer Reviews
D. Supervisory
E. Third Party
70-346 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
At a minimum, the acceptance test for contracted software should validate:
A. The documentation is consistent with the software execution
B. The documentation is understandable
C. Users will be adequately trained in the software
D. It is operable within the operational constraints of the organization
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 49
A snapshot of an organization’s security program at a certain time is a:
A. Security Model
B. Security Baseline
C. Security Risk
D. Security Test Procedure
70-346 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
Which of the following is the correct definition of a policy?
A. The intended future state of the organization
B. Managerial control over processes
C. The step-by-step methods followed to ensure that standards are met
D. Managerial desires and intents concerning processes and products
E. A standard that is enforced
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 51
Which of the following is the correct definition of the Quality Attribute Maintainability?
A. Effort required to ensure that the system performs as its intended
B. Effort required to locate and fix an error in an operational system
C. Extent to which a program satisfies its specifications
D. Extent to which a program can be expected to perform its intended function
E. None of the above
70-346 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 52
The team member is told what to do, and then how to check that what was done was done correctly.
This statement shows relationship between:
A. Plan and Do Processes
B. Plan and Check Processes
C. Do and Check Processes
D. Do and Act Processes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
To measure the customer’s perception of the quality of a software system, what type of measure would
you use?
A. Objective
B. Subjective
C. Process Measure
D. Process Variation
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 54
A weakness in an information system, which is a point where the software systems are easiest to
penetrate, is called a:
A. Risk
B. Vulnerability
C. Threat
D. Control
E. Exposure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is one of the two major objectives for establishing a security baseline?
A. Developing a security budget
B. Determining the effectiveness of the security program
C. Determine where security training is necessary
D. Developing a security policy
E. As a basis for organizing a security function
70-346 vce Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION: 11
Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces
in 5 virtual routers. How many routing tables are maintained on that module?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 100

70-699 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 12
Which configuration command creates a virtual router called isp-1?
A. virtual-router isp-1
B. virtual-router ISP-1
C. virtual-router VR isp-1
D. virtual-router VR ISP-1
Answer: A
QUESTION: 13
You would like to configure an ATM PVC with a virtual circuit identifier of 33 on virtual path 0.
The PVC should use an unspecified bit rate and be encapsulated in the AAL5SNAP format.
Which command accomplishes this goal?
A. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
C. atm pvc 0/33 aal5snap ubr
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap ubr
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 14
Which two forms of DSL connectivity provide the same bandwidth in both directions? (Choose
two.)
A. ADSL
B. HDSL
C. SDSL
D. RADSL
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 15
Which protocol is used between the RAS and the authentication server in a narrowband network
environment?
A. RADIUS
B. PPP PAP
C. MS CHAP
D. PPP CHAP
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 16
Which two B-RAS service offerings do not require user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Routed 1483
B. Bridged 1483
C. PPP over ATM
D. PPP over Ethernet
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 17
In a bridged 1483 network, which configuration command allows the ERX Edge Router to
advertise customer networks into the provider’s IGP?
A. redistribute direct
B. redistribute static
C. redistribute connected
D. redistribute access-internal
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Answer: C
QUESTION: 18
Which two statements are correct concerning DHCP Internal Server in the E-series router?
(Choose two.)
A. Provide dynamic IP addresses for DSIs.
B. Provide connectivity to DHCP servers on other subnetworks.
C. Provide dynamic IP addresses for SRC applications.
D. Provide dynamic IP addresses from pools used for PPPoE subscribers.
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 19
Which command configures an ATM PVC in a Bridged 1483 network?
A. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
B. atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5bridge
C. atm pvc 33 0 33 bridge1483
D. atm pvc 33 0 33 1483bridge
70-699 exam 
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
A service provider is operating a Routed 1483 network where the ATM PVCs are treated as a
large subnet. What is a consequence of this configuration?
A. It burns up IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. It results in a smaller routing table.
D. Each PVC has a separate /30 subnet.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 21
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with an external DHCP server in a Bridged 1483
network?

A. It maintains DHCP leases on behalf of subscribers.
B. It initiates DHCP requests on behalf of subscribers.
C. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server; you must configure static host routes.
D. It passes DHCP traffic to and from the server and inserts host routes into its routing table.
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Answer: D
QUESTION: 22
A Bridged 1483 service offering is grouping DSL users into a large subnet. What are three
characteristics of this configuration? (Choose three.)
A. It burns IP addresses.
B. It conserves IP addresses.
C. A group of PVCs is a subnet.
D. It provides a numbered IP address to the ERX.
E. It provides an IP unnumbered address to ERX.
Answer: B, C, E
QUESTION: 23
In a Routed 1483 network which method of routing is typically employed on the DSL router?
A. static
B. OSPF
C. RIPv1
D. RIPv2
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Answer: A
QUESTION: 24
How does the ERX Edge Router interact with subscriber IP addresses assigned by an external
DHCP server?
A. It monitors messages from the external server and updates the routing table as needed.

B. It maintains the leases for the DHCP server and reassigns addresses to new subscribers.
C. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and makes the address available when the subscriber stops responding.
D. It sends keepalives to the subscriber and removes the host route when the subscriber stops
responding.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 25
Which two static routes are typically configured on your router when a Routed 1483 network is
grouping ATM PVCs into a large subnet? (Choose two.)
A. host route
B. default route
C. customer network
D. ISP’s routing domain
70-699 vce 
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 26
Which configuration command represents a static customer route in a Routed 1483 network?
A. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 172.10.1.2
B. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 atm 6/0.33
C. ip route 40.40.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.10.1.2
D. ip route 40.40.0.0 255.255.0.0 atm 6/0.33
Answer: D
QUESTION: 27
Which RADIUS configuration command implements a primary/backup scenario for multiple
servers?
A. radius algorithm direct
B. radius algorithm backup
C. radius algorithm primary
D. radius algorithm round-robin
70-699 exam 
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
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QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
070-489 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to search for research papers that contain media files 070-489 dumps.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to
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Select and Place:
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Explanation
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QUESTION 9
You need to add code to line MP57 to display the required properties for the user profile.
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QUESTION NO: 11
Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a cluster
running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
070-489 dumps Answer: D,F
Note: Namenode stores modifications to the filesystem as a log appended to a
native filesystem file (edits). When a Namenode starts up, it reads HDFS state from an image file
(fsimage) and then applies edits from edits log file. It then writes new HDFS state to (fsimage) and
starts normal operation with an empty edits file. Since namenode merges fsimage and edits files
only during start up, edits file could get very large over time on a large cluster. Another side effect
of larger edits file is that next restart of Namenade takes longer.
The secondary namenode merges fsimage and edits log periodically and keeps edits log size with
in a limit. It is usually run on a different machine than the primary Namenode since its memory
requirements are on the same order as the primary namemode. The secondary namenode is
started by bin/start-dfs.sh on the nodes specified in conf/masters file.
QUESTION NO: 12
For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what’s the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the
DataNode is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
070-489 pdf Answer: A
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system begins replicating the blocks that were
stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
datanode to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the
data never passes through the namenode.
Note:If the Name Node stops receiving heartbeats from a Data Node it presumes it to be dead and
any data it had to be gone as well.Based on the block reports it had been receiving from the dead
node, the Name Node knows which copies of blocks died along with the node and can make the
decision to re-replicate those blocks to other Data Nodes.It will also consult the Rack Awareness
data in order to maintain the two copies in one rack, one copy in another rack replica rule when
deciding which Data Node should receive a new copy of the blocks.
Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How
NameNode Handles data node failures’
QUESTION NO: 14
How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)

A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B
How NameNode Handles data node failures?
NameNode periodically receives a Heartbeat and a Blockreport from each of the DataNodes in the
cluster. Receipt of a Heartbeat implies that the DataNode is functioning properly. A Blockreport
contains a list of all blocks on a DataNode. When NameNode notices that it has not recieved a
hearbeat message from a data node after a certain amount of time, the data node is marked as
dead. Since blocks will be under replicated the system 070-489 dumps  begins replicating the blocks that were stored on the dead datanode. The NameNode Orchestrates the replication of data blocks from one
datanode to another. The replication data transfer happens directly between datanodes and the
data never passes through the namenode. Reference: 24 Interview Questions & Answers for Hadoop MapReduce developers, How NameNode Handles data node failures?

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